gallego is partly right, even though he talks like an ignorant bigot. i've heard salafi sheikhs say that the most literal meaning of nikaah is intercourse, but now it means the means to make intercourse halal.
More personal insults awais?
Show me one bigoted or sexist remark I have made (unless you consider my advocacy of deporting of jailing somebody who preaches murder to be "bigoted"....in which case you are the one with the problem, not me). Show me one remark I have made where I have wished bad luck or harm to anybody. Show me one ad hominem personal attack I have made to anybody in this forum, unless you consider certain (perhaps for some) unanswerable questions to be represent an "attitude".
On the other hand, personal insults seem to be the order of the day for you. If you are going to make personal insults, try backing them up with something I said.
I am not as ignorant as you might think. Personal insults are, in my experience, normally the only recourse for the truly ignorant. Insofar as my exchanges with you are concerned, I am not going to go there. I am not going to accuse you of being ignorant. For the time being at least, I will give you the benefit of the doubt.
And by the way, intercourse for muslim men can be made halal in just about any situation. According to verse 4:24 (
according to the Tafsir of Al Jalalayn, and I assume you know who he is...I will not accuse you of being ignorant on that one), even rape is halal. Even rape falls under the term "Nikah". So I don't think it's a stretch at all to equate "Nikah" to the "F" word.
I am examining some other Tafsirs on that verse. One of the moderators has questioned my reliance on Arabic Christians. Maybe you have a better source. I speak several languages (Spanish, French, and German in addition to my native Canadian English), but unfortunately for me, Arabic is not one them. In any event, my Arabic (infidel) Christian friends contend that this verse essentially categorizes all women as whores.
[4.24] And all married women except those whom your right hands possess (this is) Allah's ordinance to you, and lawful for you are (all women) besides those, provided that you seek (them) with your property, taking (them) in marriage not committing fornication.
Then as to those whom you profit by, give them their dowries as appointed; and there is no blame on you about what you mutually agree after what is appointed; surely Allah is Knowing, Wise.
I am not going to take that position until I examine some other Tafsirs more carefully. But it does seem pretty clear that muslim men are allowed to "profit" by their women.
Does the mention of the Tafsir constitute talking like an "ignorant bigot"? I don't think so.