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Theme Changer

 Topic: Significance of saying 'Nisa' in 65:4 / Pedophilia

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  • Significance of saying 'Nisa' in 65:4 / Pedophilia
     OP - July 23, 2017, 09:51 PM

    Hi all.

    Its always confused me does Nisa mean woman or female?

    Because I heard  an apologetic claim that if the verse implied pedophilia it would say futayatu or bintu, child or girl.

    imo this is a sad apologetic because it proves how dangerously unclear their perfectly clear book is.

    Still any takes?
  • Significance of saying 'Nisa' in 65:4 / Pedophilia
     Reply #1 - July 24, 2017, 12:30 AM

    Dafuq are you talking about?

    "Life is not a matter of holding good cards, but of playing a poor hand well."
    - Robert Louis Stevenson
  • Significance of saying 'Nisa' in 65:4 / Pedophilia
     Reply #2 - July 24, 2017, 03:12 AM

    Scholars of fiqh unanimously agree that a girl becomes a woman the moment she either menstruates or has any of the other signs of puberty (wet dream, hair growth on private parts). If neither of those signs show until a certain age, she is still regarded as a woman. Most school of thoughts agree somewhere around 15 years of age is apropriate. So you can have a 10 year old menstruating girl be legally regarded as a woman.

    "The healthiest people I know are those who are the first to label themselves fucked up." - three
  • Significance of saying 'Nisa' in 65:4 / Pedophilia
     Reply #3 - July 24, 2017, 07:38 AM

    I'm sorry, but I really need to bitch about this point because it pisses me off every single time it is brought up. It's nothing more than empty semantics trying to weasel one's way out of this conundrum that Islamic shariah brings about.

    Pedophilia is sexual attraction towards children below the age of puberty. A child might still appear to be below the age of puberty even after she has started to menstruate. As we all know, a child's development varies depending on the individual. And none the less, because this seems to be often ignored, both mentally and intellectually the child is still very much a child irregardless whether she has started to grow some pubes down there. For a grown ass man to be sexually attracted to a 10 year old girl who has just started to menstruate, with all it entails being a 10 year old little girl in a 10 year old little girl's body, it is quite obvious that this brings about some serious moral questions. Not just moral in the sense of "I don't think this is moral because I feel it is wrong". But moral based on actual psychological and physical facts. Facts don't give a shit about culture nor time nor context. Facts are facts.

    It is more than clear that any girl who has shown signs of puberty, the very moment she shows one of these signs (i.e not "oh after a couple of years"), she is eligible to be married off to whoever her father deems to be fit. If he deems a 50 year old man to be the best option for him, there is nothing within the Islamic legal contexts that could argue that he is prohibited from doing this. Some scholars and schools of thoughts even argue that a father has the right to marry his daughter off before the age of puberty, because they argue that a girl who hasn't reached the age of puberty can't be asked for permission. Unless she actively opposes the marriage after puberty, the marriage is valid. We don't have to go into a discussion why that is more than problematic, do we?

    Now, someone arguing that the word al-nisaa means woman, and if "girls" were to be married off it would have said "al-bint" or something like that. Allow me to laugh in my most mockingly way, and I'm pretty good at laughing mockingly at people who are idiots. Islam doesn't say that girls, i.e children, are to be married off and possibly married off or widowed. But a 10 year old girl who had her first pube isn't a child now is she? At least not according to shariah law.

    urgh. Need to stop now because I'm running late....

    "The healthiest people I know are those who are the first to label themselves fucked up." - three
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