So I've posted this draught:
https://docs.google.com/file/d/0B4-3UDjnJ4ybYjg5YWIwUGE5ZjA/The term ḥanpé used to mean pagan to a Syrian. From the first conquest up to the 50s / 670s the Christians used it readily to label anyone Not Like Us: “Us” including Jews (and Samaritans) and Christians, and “Not Like” meaning anyone outside these confessions including Arabs and Manichees. This had changed by the 70s / 690s when Muslims were considered more like Jews and no longer ḥanpé. In the decade between, Jacobite patriarch Athanasius submitted an epistle to keep his community away from “pagans” which, possibly, was code for Muslims. So where ḥanîf appears in the Qur’an, it intends to be understood as Christians in the first seven decades AH understood it: as gentiles not associated with a religion but also not necessarily idolaters.
As usual for me, it's on that verge between scholarly and just plain ornery. I did it because I see lots of articles discussing ḥanîf(a) as the Qur'an looks at it, and I've never seen an article explaining its cognate ḥanpé as the Syrians used it - at least, not source-by-source. I fully expect that someone serious is already writing a better article and we'll see the link here within two years.
(Aside: There is no such word as al-ḥanîf. Luxenberg already looked. The word ḥanîf is pure Syriac, not Arabic, and that's why the Qur'an says ḥanîfâ when it refers to a specific ḥanîf.)
Any thoughts? I mean, besides that my seventh-century Syriac is minimal and transcribed wrong, which I know, partly because there are too many ways of transcribing Syriac (and don't get me started on the multiplicity of alphabets). Although improvements to my Syriac will be well-received... as will pointers on
how to improve it, like a good textbook.