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 Topic: Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an

 (Read 14620 times)
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  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     OP - October 10, 2014, 07:10 PM

    I'm a big admirer of this young scholar Ahmad al-Jallad, who I think is brilliant (the Ph.D. with distinction from Harvard is probably a good tip-off on that point).

    http://www.hum.leiden.edu/lias/organisation/arabic/aljalladam.html

    He has recently started a new series of articles on an incredibly difficult and interesting subject:  What, exactly, is Arabic from a linguistic perspective?  How did it develop?  And critically, what exactly was pre-Islamic Arabic in the Levant and Northern Arabia?  Here is the first article in that series, which just came out:

    http://www.academia.edu/7583140/Graeco-Arabica_I_the_southern_Levant

    His methodology is ingenious -- by focusing on pre-Islamic *Greek transcriptions* of texts within the Nabatean area, he is able to perform a sophisticated analysis of the Arabic substratum of the region, including its various features.  As it turns out, Greek script is terrible for representing Arabic consonants, but quite good for representing complex vowelization.

    Numerous fascinating points come out of this analysis, but here are some of Jallad's big arguments (some made in his previous papers).  First, there is no clear split between Arabic and "Ancient North Arabian" languages, but rather there was a continuum of Old Arabic languages across the entire region PRIOR to Islam.  Second, the modern Levantine dialects were already in place prior to Islam -- these languages did not migrate to the area with Arabs from the peninsula, they were already in the area.  Modern Arabic, according to Jallad, represents a 'polygenesis' from several different pre-Islamic Arabic groups, which then mixed to some degree as a result of Islam.  Last, it is well known that the Arabic script is derived from the Nabatean (aka Southern Levant) script (which was used initially for Nabatean Aramaic, but also Nabatean Arabic).  According to Jallad, however, the base Qur'anic rasm not only reflects the *script* of this region, it also represents the *speech* of this region.

    This is important because it relates to a long ongoing debate about the base Qur'anic script, the rasm:  Why do so many features of that base script seem so remarkably different than Classical Arabic?  The Qur'an appears to have been originally written in a different orthography than it was later read in by Muslim tradition.  Certain features -- the lack of medial hamz, the lack of case endings, the peculiar long vowel markings -- seem completely different from Classical Arabic.  Yet those same features also seem consistent with Nabatean Arabic.  Is this just a case of the Qur'an being written in the 'wrong script', but then read in the 'right language'?  In other words, why are words like "salwt" written in an orthography different than Classical Arabic, which reads the 'w' as a long "a"?  Why is there such variation in the vowelization of the rasm and the earliest Qur'anic manuscripts?  Is this just an alien scribal convention that was 'corrected' even at the time of composition by recitation similar to the later Classical Arabic tradition?

    If you look at pages 37 and 38 of his new article, Jallad weighs in with some interesting thoughts.  Basically, he argues that the base orthography of the Qur'an agrees with Levantine Arabic as actually spoken at that time, and that Classical Arabic's attempt to read the "y" as mater lectionis for long "a" is erroneous; the Qur'an's vowelization in the base rasm reflects a "non-a" pronunciation.  Unfortunately this website doesn't allow me to cut and paste the scripts correctly, but you can see how remarkably different the later "Classical Arabic" reading of this vowelization is relative to the base rasm letters -- Classical Arabic recitation levels out the vowelization incorrectly, reflecting secondary developments.  This is not just a matter of the Classical Arabic recitation being written in a 'different dialect' either, because the Qur'an's rhyme scheme is not consistent with that argument -- the rhyme is written to fit the base orthography, not the Classical Arabic recitation.

    Apparently Jallad has several further articles that will be coming out which address these issues.  Can't wait!

    I thought people might be interested in this line of research, and have thoughts about it, because as far as I'm concerned it's some of the most fascinating and important research out there.  We still know incredibly little about pre-Islamic Arabic, and about early Arabic orthography -- and as a result of that uncertainty, we still don't know much about the language reflected in the base Qur'anic script.  I'm hopeful that guys like Jallad will eventually create a much improved linguistic basis for approaching these issues, and as a result a much better understanding of what the Qur'an is, how it was compiled, where it was compiled, and what its language/script actually means.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #1 - October 10, 2014, 07:35 PM

    never stop posting stuff like this dude  Afro

    "we can smell traitors and country haters"


    God is Love.
    Love is Blind. Stevie Wonder is blind. Therefore, Stevie Wonder is God.

  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #2 - October 17, 2014, 12:35 AM

    Bump for a new article that al-Jallad just put out ... yet another home run, this time he convincingly demonstrates that the 'earliest' Arabic language inscription isn't Arabic language after all.

    https://www.academia.edu/8770005/Al-Jallad_2014_On_the_genetic_background_of_the_Rbbl_bn_Hf%CA%BFm_grave_inscription_at_Qaryat_al-Faw

    This essay is chock full of spectacular argument, and refers to a new paper coming out soon from al-Jallad and Huehnergard that will give a disciplined genetic definition of what Arabic actually IS .... a question that until now has never had an adequate basis in scientific linguistics.  Briefly, the comparatively crude definition used to date relies primarily on distinguishing "l" definite articles (as in "al-Jallad") from "h" definite articles (the "l" being seen as an innovation specific to Arabic).  Al Jallad junks that old definition, showing it to be useless as a criterion for distinguishing Arabic.  Instead he presents a highly technical morphological definition that excludes features shared by non-Arabic language, and relies only on innovations specific to Arabic.  As a result, the early inscription he analyzes turns out not to be Arabic at all.

    Other points of note are that al Jallad rips into many key arguments about the Qur'an's base orthography and the pronunciation that it represents.  He pretty much wrecks the argument that both "y" and "w" could be used interchangeably to designate a long "a".  Rather than reflecting arbitrary orthographic reform (different ways of writing the same thing), these seem to be traces of distinct archaic pronunciations that were *lost* by the innovative pronunciation used in Classical Arabic, which tended to level them.  In other words, the orthodox recitations of the Qur'an diverged from its original linguistic context.  A good example:

    "Consider, for example, the spelling of etymological *banaya in the QCT as bny, which must reflect either an underlying banē/ banay or banaya, but not banā.   Indeed, the non-ā reflex is retained in some dialects well into the Umayyad period. One of the Muʿāwiyahdam inscriptions attests the form bny-h, for ‘he built it ’, spelled unambiguously as []."

    Also,

    "Some scholars might suggest that the original form was banā and that the QCT reflects imālah of the final ā. Imālah is one of the most misused terms by Arabists. Imālah does not randomly apply to ā; it is a conditioned sound change that requires a conditioning environment, which is usually the presence of an i-class vowel or y. Calling unconditioned instances of  ā>ē  imālah is simply restating the problem and does not solve anything. Even if the glyph [] represents ē  here, it would suggest that *aya and *awa remained distinct at the proto-stage, as the latter is represented differently, as [], in the orthography."
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #3 - October 17, 2014, 11:29 AM

    never stop posting stuff like this dude  Afro

    Seconded.

    I'm a sloppy dilettante who will never read the papers you refer to. But I am very, very grateful for your précis of them.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #4 - October 17, 2014, 11:52 AM

    Gods above! What a treasure trove, I can't wait to plow through it this weekend. Guillaume Dye's stuff on traces of non-Arabic languages being in the Qur'an was good stuff; this takes it to the next level.

    If the rasm represents non-Arabic speech and language patterns, then the original meanings could have been totally different. What happened to cause such a huge gulf between the Quranic text and the understanding of it? It's like some fragments were written down, then lost for a long time before being rediscovered and compiled into a larger volume.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #5 - October 17, 2014, 11:58 AM

    Shaytanshoes, please tell me about you and shoes. Are you a maker, designer or just a fetishist? (Serious question. My Mrs is a bespoke shoemaker.)
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #6 - October 17, 2014, 12:15 PM

    Fetishist, I'm afraid. I have a love of good shoes but bespoke ones are usually far beyond my means.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #7 - October 17, 2014, 12:31 PM

    And mine.

    I'm still waiting for a freebie pair, but, as a closer, she is only one link in a five-link chain.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #8 - October 17, 2014, 05:27 PM

    Gods above! What a treasure trove, I can't wait to plow through it this weekend. Guillaume Dye's stuff on traces of non-Arabic languages being in the Qur'an was good stuff; this takes it to the next level.

    If the rasm represents non-Arabic speech and language patterns, then the original meanings could have been totally different. What happened to cause such a huge gulf between the Quranic text and the understanding of it? It's like some fragments were written down, then lost for a long time before being rediscovered and compiled into a larger volume.


    That's exactly right, although I would say it a bit differently.  The work that al-Jallad is doing supports Karl Vollers' broad thesis that the Qur'an was originally written down in Arabic dialect that was very different than the "Classical Arabic" that it is now read in, and which was written over the base rasm by a swarm of Masoretic symbols that we see in the modern Qur'an, along with elaborate rules for how to recite it.  In particular, the base rasm appears to reflect an Arabic dialect that is caseless, which lacked a medial glottal stop, was vowelized differently, and which had different word endings.  The Qur'an was then later 'adapted' to another way of reading, retrospectively.  It would be as though I deleted all of the vowels in the words of this post and then tried to read its text in a Middle-English accent and with Middle-English grammar, which I signified by a swarm of additional characters to explain how to do it.

    The main opposing argument concedes that the base rasm is not particularly consistent with Classical Arabic, but argues that it is sort of a 'defective borrowed orthography' that was secondary to the Classical Arabic speech, and which was borrowed even though it didn't fit.  The reason this 'defective loan orthography' was used is because Arabic didn't have (according to this argument) a good script of its own (although it certainly did -- Ancient South Arabian had an excellent script that was widespread through the whole peninsula!).

    In other words, it's as though I took a slang-filled speech spoken by a contemporary African American youth and wrote it down into formal standard written English, rather than changing it to reflect the actual vernacular sounds that the speaker is using.  "Wut you ax him fo", the actual sounds spoken, becomes written down in formal written English as "What did you ask him for?"  According to this view, in the same way as my example, when the Qur'an writes "slwt" as the rasm's word for prayer, it is using a 'borrowed formal orthography' that incorrectly represents, allegedly, the actual contemporary pronunciation "salaat."  The use of 'slwt' to spell the word is seen as a 'weird spelling' which has been 'corrected' by later Muslims who write in the 'correct' pronunciation over the slwt base rasm.  Same with the other inexplicable vowelizations of the base rasm.

    But as al-Jallad points out, that 'archaic orthography' view is inconsistent with the Qur'an's overall use of orthography, and as Vollers pointed out, another major problem is that the Qur'an's rhyme scheme appears to be based on a caseless Arabic.  The much better argument, I think, is that the Qur'an's base rasm is old, and correctly reflects a contemporary variety (or varieties) of spoken Arabic that is significantly different than what was defined hundreds of years later as Classical Arabic (an artificial subset of various features pulled from across the broad range of Arabic types, often deliberately archaic).

    The Qur'an is definitely written in some type of Arabic (though it reflects influences from other languages).  The question is what Arabic actually is, what kind of Arabic the Qur'an is written in, and where that Arabic was spoken.  Up until now, our answers to these questions have been defective and unsatisfactory, resting on unscientific methods, rather than critical linguistic analysis.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #9 - October 19, 2014, 02:44 PM

    Pardon me for repeating myself, it's just that I find linguistics rather difficult. History, doubly so.

    What you're saying is that the base rasm or some parts are from older texts in a different Arabic variant, written for a different audience with a different focus. Now the compilers of the Qur'an had a helluva time making sense of it so they added diacritical marks to standardize pronunciation and meaning to suit their own interpretations, but their interpretations were very different compared to the originals' intent, thus making the modified text incoherent. Right?

    Oral storytelling
     |
    Qur'an rasm (north Arabian?)
     |
     | long time in between...
     |
    Qur'an in "classical Arabic"
     |
     | centuries of tafseer bullshit...
     |
    English translations, convoluted and incoherent

    And this is just analyzing the language of the Qur'an, we haven't looked it's actual content and whether it was cribbed from elsewhere.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #10 - October 30, 2014, 11:31 PM

    Bump for al-Jallad's new publication of a gigantic book he has written on Safaitic grammar, the first comprehensive book on the subject.  Too expensive (at $210) to buy, but it looks to be a fantastic piece of scholarship. 

    http://www.brill.com/products/book/outline-grammar-safaitic-inscriptions

    Safaitic is a script that nomads/Bedouins used to record pre-Islamic Old Arabic dialects (according to al Jallad, though prior scholars had distinguished Safaitic languages from Arabic on the spurious grounds that Safaitic inscriptions used a different definite article), and as such it can potentially provide a great deal of insight into what Qur'anic Arabic is and what type of Old Arabic language it actually represents -- as opposed to just assuming it is the same language that was defined as "Classical Arabic" centuries later.  As al Jallad says, we are talking about a continuum of Old Arabic dialects that existed in the Northern regions for centuries prior to Islam:

    "This variation suggests that forms of Arabic exhibiting the ʾl- article sat on a continuum of Old Arabic dialects – some of which exhibit a ha- article and others no article at all – stretching from the Syrian Desert into the Transjordan and the Negev, an area covered by our Greek epigraphy and papyri. Therefore, we can reasonably attribute the Arabic material in transcription to the Arabic substratum of Nabataean and the varieties attested in the ANA epigraphy of our region. I would propose collectively labeling the dialects situated on this continuum “Old Arabic”, and using script-based terms such as Safaitic and Ḥismaic as a convention to refer to the forms of Old Arabic they usually express."

    Previously Qur'anic scholars did not pay much attention to the languages written in "Ancient North Arabian" scripts because they assumed they were not really Arabic languages, the definite article being taken as genetic proof of that. But Al Jallad has convincingly shown that (1) Ancient North Arabian is a script, not a unified family of languages; and (2) from among the languages written in Ancient North Arabian scripts, the languages written in Safaitic and Hismaic scripts are primarily varieties of Old Arabic; likewise, the Nabatean inscriptions record varieties of Old Arabic (alongside and eventually replacing Nabatean Aramaic).

    Question why the base Qur'anic rasm was not written in an Ancient North Arabian script, which would have worked vastly better than the Nabatean script that it actually used -- Ancient North Arabian being far less defective and more suited for writing Arabic than Nabatean was.  Scholars have argued this was because Nabatean script had greater prestige, but that leads to the question -- where it had such prestige and why it was sufficient to warrant adopting such an unsuitable script.  I'd suggest the blindingly obvious answer -- the Nabatean region itself.

    At any rate, I expect that the more our knowledge improves of varieties of Old Arabic written in Nabatean, Safaitic, and Hismaic script, the closer it can be shown that Qur'anic Arabic shares certain distinctive features with these Old Arabic languages, while Classical Arabic is an artificial construct which includes many alien linguistic impositions that are being read into the text.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #11 - October 31, 2014, 12:11 AM

    New here, but your posts led me to all the interesting stuff on academia.  This article is pure brilliance:

    academia.edu/9003930/Al-Jallad._2014._An_ancient_Arabian_zodiac._The_constellations_in_the_Safaitic_inscriptions_Part_I_Addendum_

    Al-Jallad deciphers an ancient zodiac used by the pre-Islamic Arabs.  This is interesting in and of itself, but here is the clincher:  Muslim writers all assert that the zodiac was adopted in the Islamic period, once the Arabs got into contact with settled peoples.  It looks like these writers knew very little about pre-Islamic Arabia.  What does this say in general about the transmission of historical information into the canonical sources of early Islamic and pre-Islamic history?  How was all of this forgotten?
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #12 - October 31, 2014, 04:42 PM

    I read that article as well, it's brilliant, I have no idea how he publishes such incredibly technical, long, and ingenious articles at such a blistering pace.  He must be working on meth 24/7 or something.  If you look at his 'forthcoming' article list, he seems to have a mountain of amazing papers and books on the verge of publication.  I'm a total bandwagoner.

    It's indeed fascinating that with the Safaitic inscriptions we have a mountain of Old Arabic texts from bedouins and nomads, unlike the Hijaz, and the inscriptions reveal that the writers of these texts were suffused with (in this case) distinctively Babylonian culture.  However I'm not sure (I don't know enough) that this exactly conflicts with the traditional Muslim account, because Al-Jallad seems to imply that the traditional Muslim astrology was derived from Aramaic sources, not Babylonian.  SO there is a gap between the later Islamic astrology and the earlier ANA astrology; Islamic astrology was not derived from the latter.  Here's what he writes in that article:

    "The Arabian zodiac as identified in this paper sits somewhere between the Greek and West Semitic zodiacs and the Babylonian. Unlike the South Arabian and Arabic constellations mentioned in the Islamic sources, the names attested in the Safaitic inscriptions are not direct ports from the Aramaic. Instead,they seem to reflect a common heritage with the Babylonian, which may be the result of the long historical interaction between the peoples of the  Ḥawran and thedeserts of North Arabia with Mesopotamian civilisation. Part II of this paper will deal with the historical implications of this finding."

    Remember, however, that the Qur'an itself has a surah that is titled after a zodiac sign, surah buruj (no. 85) -- incidentally, one of the weirdest and most garbled surahs in the entire Qur'an by my lights, the traditional Islamic reading of it cannot be correct.  So clearly the region where it was composed was already familiar with constellations and the zodiac prior to Islamic expansion.  The bigger question is how it learned about them, and from where .... the two likely candidates being Mesopotamian or Hellenic influence, and it seems the former is more likely.

    Well, I can't wait to see what he says in Part II .... 
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #13 - October 31, 2014, 05:14 PM

    Btw, as long as we are geeking out on new al-Jallad articles, here's yet another short one he just put out arguing that the 'sad' was 'affricated' in Early Islamic times, in other words pronounced somewhat like 'ts,' where the consonant begins with a 'stopped' position that transitions into the hissing 's' sound. 

    http://www.academia.edu/8770050/Al-Jallad._2014._A%E1%B9%A2-%E1%B9%A2%C4%80DU_LLAT%C4%AA_KA-S-S%C4%AAN_EVIDENCE_FOR_AN_AFFRICATED_%E1%B9%A2%C4%80D_IN_SIBAWAYH

    The only relevance this would have for broader issues is that the sad is not affricated as 'ts' in modern Qur'anic recitation .... rather it is pronounced in modern "Classical Arabic" recitation as an 'emphatic sibilant' (similar to English 's').  In other words, yet again this is a departure (albeit minor) between the language that the Qur'an is recited in and the language it was actually written in (assuming that the Qur'an reflects the more archaic pronunciation of the sad that was prevalent in Early Islamic times and not the innovative version that later became dominant).  In other words, the modern Arabic recitation consists of an innovation away from the proto-Semitic pronunciation that still existed in the Arabic of Early Islamic times.

    Incidentally, if al Jallad is right, this explains why 'sad' and 'sin' are so close in pronunciation for modern Arabic recitation and speech, and the use of the written characters is so confusing -- in Early Islamic Arabic, they were far more distinct, so the distinction between them has grown much more artificial over the centuries as the sounds merged.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #14 - October 31, 2014, 05:42 PM

    I would love to be able to transport myself back to Mecca at the beginning of the 7th Century. I suspect I'd have an extremely hard time understanding and being understood using "Classical Arabic".
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #15 - October 31, 2014, 05:44 PM

    I would love to be able to transport myself back to Mecca at the beginning of the 7th Century. I suspect I'd have an extremely hard time understanding and being understood using "Classical Arabic".


    I suspect you might not find much there as well!
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #16 - October 31, 2014, 06:16 PM


    The only relevance this would have for broader issues is that the sad is not affricated as 'ts' in modern Qur'anic recitation .... rather it is pronounced in modern "Classical Arabic" recitation as an 'emphatic sibilant' (similar to English 's').  In other words, yet again this is a departure (albeit minor) between the language that the Qur'an is recited in and the language it was actually written in (assuming that the Qur'an reflects the more archaic pronunciation of the sad that was prevalent in Early Islamic times and not the innovative version that later became dominant).


    Actually, if Al-Jallad's reading of Sibawayh is correct, then that at some point the sad of the Qur'an was pronounced as ts.  The current pronunciation of the Quran fits Sibawayh's 'sad which is like the sin'.  Put differently, the way the sad is pronounced today is exactly what Sibawayh claimed was unsuitable for Quranic recitation!
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #17 - October 31, 2014, 08:54 PM

    I find this really interesting. The Quran is a unique case where the arabic language conforms the the scripture rather than the scripture conforming to the language. This is why they believe that the Quran is a "linguistically infallible" and a miracle. Studies like that is much needed.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #18 - October 31, 2014, 08:57 PM

    Yep, that is the point.  Sibawayh was identifying and rejecting the innovative tendency in the Arabic of his time to pronounce the sad like the sin, meaning (per Jallad) pronounce them both as 's,' rather than maintaining the archaic pronounciation of sad as 'ts' (which is the retained proto-Semitic pronunciation) against the sin as 's.'  Sibawayh correctly identified the 'ts' pronunciation as the more archaic Arabic version used in the Qur'an.  The merger was an unsuitable innovation.  However despite Sibawayh's correct condemnation of it, the innovative merger of sad and sin won out over the following centuries, and the correct archaic pronunciation of 'sad' disappeared for good from Arabic (it is still preserved in other Semitic languages, btw).  

    Later generations misunderstood Sibawayh's condemnation of the merger to be Sibawayh's way of saying that 'sad' should be pronounced more "emphatic" than sin.  But that is not what he was addressing, and the 's' of sin is already an emphatic sibilant, making the distinction between 'sad' and 'sin' in modern Arabic largely one of formal morphology of the written word (in other words, just different spellings) rather than a legitimate distinction in pronunciation (i.e. the difference between 'ts' and 's').

    I have seen attempts to explain or illustrate the difference in pronunciation between these two in modern Arabic, and they are really trying to defend the exact practice that Sibawayh condemned, but which ultimately took over Arabic speech (including Qur'anic recitation).  They are artificial attempts to identify and maintain a distinction that has in reality been lost.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #19 - October 31, 2014, 09:18 PM

    I find this really interesting. The Quran is a unique case where the arabic language conforms the the scripture rather than the scripture conforming to the language. This is why they believe that the Quran is a "linguistically infallible" and a miracle. Studies like that is much needed.


    I would put it differently ... first it is not unique AT ALL to Islam, second it is more that the Islamic interpretation of the Qur'an requires it to conform to an artificially defined language -- a kunstsprache, to use a German word I love -- that was only formalized centuries later, out of a wide array of linguistic practices that were no longer understood or specific.

    Why do I say it's not unique?  The same phenomenon exists in many other religions with divine scriptures, including Judaism and Zoroastrianism.  The correct archaic pronunciations of their scriptures were lost over time (in ancient times nobody had the incredibly refined linguistic sophistication and scripts required to adequately pin down the correct pronunciations).  Judaism is particularly on point, because it used a Semitic script that was kitted out with Masoretic markings (exactly like Islam) that formalized a particular rabbinical pronunciation of the Hebrew that differed from the archaic pronunciation, and yet which believing Jews to this day continue to follow and claim represented the speech of Moses et al!  Classical Arabic is in virtually the same boat, having reacted to the problem of divergent Arabic pronunciations and bizarre Qur'anic orthography by overlaying the holy rasm with a vast barrage of Masoretic symbols and amazingly complex formalized rules of recitation -- but much too late, as a reaction to a problem that was already way out of control.

    Just like Muslims, the medieval Jewish Masoretes claimed to be recording the oral tradition that had correctly been passed through secure oral tradition for centuries.  But they were just as wrong about that.  Their pronunciation was already seriously compromised, with no resources to determine what the 'correct' pronunciation was (whatever that might mean anyways, given the radically composite nature of the texts -- did you know part of the book of Daniel is written in Aramaic, not Hebrew?).  They also frequently resorted to wildly implausible mystical explanations and far-fetched etymologies to explain the text's many peculiarities and its plain grammatical errors, practices that are again common to the Qur'anic tafsir.

    To some degree the Christians were spared this pronunciation chaos because (a) they don't attribute divine significance to proper Greek pronunciation (Jesus did not speak Greek himself, after all, but rather Aramaic); and (b) they were writing in a more developed alphabetic script, meaning Greek, which was also used for an enormous number of other contemporary texts, rather than an ambiguous (or in the case of the Qur'anic rasm, hyper-ambiguous) rasm.  The textual problem Christians face is less pronunciation and semantics, more the vast number of variant texts they have.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #20 - October 31, 2014, 10:32 PM

    Yep, that is the point.  Sibawayh was identifying and rejecting the innovative tendency in the Arabic of his time to pronounce the sad like the sin, meaning (per Jallad) pronounce them both as 's,' rather than maintaining the archaic pronounciation of sad as 'ts' (which is the retained proto-Semitic pronunciation) against the sin as 's.'  Sibawayh correctly identified the 'ts' pronunciation as the more archaic Arabic version used in the Qur'an.  The merger was an unsuitable innovation.  However despite Sibawayh's correct condemnation of it, the innovative merger of sad and sin won out over the following centuries, and the correct archaic pronunciation of 'sad' disappeared for good from Arabic (it is still preserved in other Semitic languages, btw).  

    Later generations misunderstood Sibawayh's condemnation of the merger to be Sibawayh's way of saying that 'sad' should be pronounced more "emphatic" than sin.  But that is not what he was addressing, and the 's' of sin is already an emphatic sibilant, making the distinction between 'sad' and 'sin' in modern Arabic largely one of formal morphology of the written word (in other words, just different spellings) rather than a legitimate distinction in pronunciation (i.e. the difference between 'ts' and 's').

    I have seen attempts to explain or illustrate the difference in pronunciation between these two in modern Arabic, and they are really trying to defend the exact practice that Sibawayh condemned, but which ultimately took over Arabic speech (including Qur'anic recitation).  They are artificial attempts to identify and maintain a distinction that has in reality been lost.


    I have to take issue with this. ص and س in modern Arabic are are two separate phonemes, including in the speech of "uneducated" and/or illiterate speakers. What is called "emphatic" here refers to the process of velerization, by which the middle of the tongue is lift up to the roof ("vellum") of the mouth. The sounds produced is highly distinct to native speakers, although those not familiar with it may initially not hear the difference. What you are describing sounds more like the process by which ס  and ש became synonymous in the Hebrew language. What's interesting, though, is that Hebrew does retain the "ts" sound as צ but this sound sometimes turns a ض in Arabic and sometimes a ص (compare the Hebrew ארץ and פסח (= "land" and "Pesach/Easter")  with the Arabic ارض  and فصح (= same things in Arabic))

    ض was apparently pronounced originally in proto semetic as a voiceless alveolar lateral fricative. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Voiceless_alveolar_lateral_fricative

    This would be logical explanation for how it ended up changing in so many radical ways in different Semetic languages (though it's transformation into 'ayn in Aramaic still puzzles me).

    As to the original point, I find it hard to believe that people all over the Arab world, from Morocco to Iran, would pronounce the two differently based on Sibawayh's say-so. I could see educated people doing this, but Arabs of all educational levels stick to this pronunciation. I think the presense of ס  and ש in Hebrew and a similiar pair in Aramaic points to an original proto-semetic phoneme of a velarized S sound. I think your point is more accurately stated that the original proto-semetic "ts" which is still found in Hebrew up to this day in many cases became ص as the origianl pronunciation faded away. This would also bolster your point that the Quran's rasm was not up to the task of transcribing the language, since it lacked separate letters for these two distinguishable phonemes. If Sibawayh's point was that ص should always be pronounced as "ts" then I think he was engaging in hyper-correction.

    إطلب العلم ولو في الصين

    Es sitzt keine Krone so fest und so hoch,
    Der mutige Springer erreicht sie doch.

    I don't give a fuck about your war, or your President.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #21 - October 31, 2014, 11:29 PM

    Thanks for the excellent response!  I think the point is not that these letters are pronounced the same, but rather that the affrication difference has been lost ... which makes the remaining ways it is distinguished much vaguer.  As al-Jallad points out, if the difference was just one of emphatic versus non emphatic, why wouldn't Siabawayh have just said so, since he was so familiar with that distinction?  And if the difference was so readily apparent to Arabic speakers at that time, why was it a variant that he went out of his way to condemn as an innovation?  The assumption has to be that there was in fact a merger *problem* or *development* behind his condemnation of the variant pronunciation.  Question being what that merger consisted of.

    It's not a question of presuming that people were doing what Siabawayh said, as if this was created or maintained across Arabic in response to his directive (as you say, hard to see how that could ever happen), because under al-Jallad's theory they evidently did NOT do what he said, and instead the phonetic difference (or differences) has been maintained on an alternative basis.  In other words, they may have maintained the distinction but on a different basis than maintaining archaic affrication.  I have read multiple different explanations for what that difference is, of which vellarization is one.  I certainly can't gainsay you about the extent to which vellarization is in fact used nowadays as the distinguishing pronunciation characteristic between the phonemes.  Nor do I have any idea how that distinction would have evolved throughout the vast worlds of Arabic dialect over the centuries. But the question then becomes how archaic that distinction was ... was the archaic consonant distinguished both in affrication AND the degree of vellarization?  If so, why wouldn't Siabawayh say as such?

    As you say, however, this is ultimately a separate question (meaning what distinction between sad and sin was maintained in Arabic phonetics and how that distinction evolved over the time) from the narrower question of whether affrication was an additional such distinction at the early stage.  And as you note, the affrication has been maintained from proto-Semitic in Hebrew (as well as, I assume, some other Semitic languages), while the de-affrication in Arabic must have happened at some point during the history of Arabic or its ancestor -- the only question is when/where/why/how it happened, not whether, and al-Jallad makes a pretty strong case on that when in my book.  The where/why/how remains unclear to me, but I would be surprised if al-Jallad is wrong about the when.

    Regards, and thanks again for such interesting comments!
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #22 - November 01, 2014, 12:24 AM

    OMG, then there were two  mysmilie_977

    Hi
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #23 - November 01, 2014, 01:20 AM

    Hi Zaotar,
     thank you for the response. I don't Hebrew is the same case where the preservation of the languages you mentioned relied on a method and that method is the religious foundation. the jewish population, in most of history, were forced into conforming and it is not region specific. In that case the point of reference is necessary. Arabic on the other hand is not.. it is a region specific that expanded through conquering regions that didn't speak the language. example is north Africa. the arabic language is an ideology for expansion and authority that is why arabic is spoken in places like Indonesia almost fluently as a second language.The Qur'an is the tool for that.  this is similar to latin before lutheran reformation. English is an example of an elastic language that went through radical changes from William the conquerer on 1066,  Shakespeare, latin, German and king James bible all with the attempt to gain monopoly on a language for the scripture..  non of the attempts to frame a language within a scripture failed the catholic church wanted the monopoly of latin for the same reason .... the muslims succeeded into turning the  arabic language  into the language of the conqueror and it stuck until now. the syntax of the arabic language is considered to be wrong if it does not conform with the Qura'n
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #24 - November 01, 2014, 01:38 AM

    You know, I thought about it further and I agree countjulian must be right that the emphatic distinction is also archaic ... because it's in proto-Semitic for the letter, so presumably its continued existence in modern Arabic is a retention of that primitive characteristic.  I can't see how it would be a secondary characteristic, or if it was, you'd need fairly convincing evidence to see how that happened.

    On the other hand, it is hard to see how anybody could have merged an emphatic affricated consonant with one that is neither affricated nor emphatic (assuming al-Jallad is right).  I'll have to think about that ... I hadn't paid much attention to that particle article until today.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #25 - November 01, 2014, 01:49 AM

    Hi Zaotar,
     thank you for the response. I don't Hebrew is the same case where the preservation of the languages you mentioned relied on a method and that method is the religious foundation. the jewish population, in most of history, were forced into conforming and it is not region specific. In that case the point of reference is necessary. Arabic on the other hand is not.. it is a region specific that expanded through conquering regions that didn't speak the language. example is north Africa. the arabic language is an ideology for expansion and authority that is why arabic is spoken in places like Indonesia almost fluently as a second language.The Qur'an is the tool for that.  this is similar to latin before lutheran reformation. English is an example of an elastic language that went through radical changes from William the conquerer on 1066,  Shakespeare, latin, German and king James bible all with the attempt to gain monopoly on a language for the scripture..  non of the attempts to frame a language within a scripture failed the catholic church wanted the monopoly of latin for the same reason .... the muslims succeeded into turning the  arabic language  into the language of the conqueror and it stuck until now. the syntax of the arabic language is considered to be wrong if it does not conform with the Qura'n


    That gets into the question of where the regional Arabic dialects came from and how similar they are to Qur'anic Arabic!  Whatever you want to say about the dialects, my impression is that it would be very hard to say they resulted from the forcible imposition of Classical Arabic, although that is exactly the type of controversial subject that al-Jallad is writing about.

    In other words, the Arabic dialects preexisted the expansion, and it is not just Classical Arabic in the narrow sense that was imposed ... it is Arabic language as a whole that spread, including the dialects.  It's not as though everybody just learned a specific regional dialect that was imposed on them and which we call Classical Arabic ... even to the extent people learned Classical Arabic, that took much longer to happen, and Classical Arabic itself is a specific subset of Arabic that was filtered out and defined by later scholars relying partly (but not solely) on the Qur'anic text.  So it cannot be presumed that what was later defined as Classical Arabic is the same language as the Qur'an, or of the Arab conquest more generally, particularly when you are talking about pronunciation and not just syntax, lexicon, etc.  Also it's kind of meaningless to say Classical Arabic is defined by the Qur'an because it is not self-evident from the text alone what the grammar/syntax/lexicon of the Qur'an is ... interpreting any text requires a great deal of information beyond the text alone.  To take an example, Luxenberg's thesis about the 'waw' of apodosis being common in the Qur'an.  You can't answer such a question by referring to the Qur'an alone as if it were self evident what it means and whether it does or doesn't allow such grammar within Arabic.  All we can say is that Classical Arabic was later defined to exclude such syntax, but that doesn't tell us whether it was correct to do so -- the Qur'an itself doesn't force you either way.

    Now in terms of speaking Classical Arabic fluently (as opposed to just reciting text or being fluent in Arabic dialect), I'm not certain how common that is globally --- I'm sure others on this board would know.  But even the traditional Muslim account recognizes various distinctions between the sociolinguistic ideal that was codified as Classical Arabic and used as opposed to the specific Arabic used in the Qur'an, which has a number of odd features that never 'took' even within Classical Arabic.  But the only source I've seen to address such differences in any detail is Noldeke, who talks about how the 'good sense' of the Arabs led them to jettison certain peculiarities of Qur'anic Arabic.  Others may know more about that issue.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #26 - November 01, 2014, 08:55 AM

    You know, I thought about it further and I agree countjulian must be right that the emphatic distinction is also archaic ... because it's in proto-Semitic for the letter, so presumably its continued existence in modern Arabic is a retention of that primitive characteristic.


    Actually, the emphatic distinction in Arabic is innovative because proto-Semitic realised this sound as an ejective affricate not a velarised one.  The reading traditions of Hebrew lost the 'ejective' part but kept the affrication, and most modern Arabic dialects lost affrication and changed the ejective to velarisation.  Some dialects today realise sad as st.  I don't think the question was ever one of complete merger, but basically whether the affrication survived as late as Sibawayh.  Obviously if some dialects still affricate it today, it must have, but what is interesting about the article is that it seems Sibawayh endorsed the affricated pronunciation for the Quran.  Of course there were those who pronounced it as an emphatic sibilant not an affricate, a sound Sibawayh called the 'the sad like the sin'.  While Al-Jallad doesn't talk about the implications of this, to me this implies that the canonical ways of reciting the Qur'an today do not match what was accepted in Sibawayh's time.   
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #27 - November 01, 2014, 09:48 AM

    OMG, then there were two  mysmilie_977

    And now I feel double thick.
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #28 - December 05, 2014, 07:59 PM

    Bump, Al-Jallad just posted a huge raft of awesome new articles.  How does the guy get time to sleep? 

    An incendiary review of another scholar's recent book on Arabic linguistics, this is one of the most brutal beat-downs I've ever seen a linguist deliver.  Super technical, but fun to witness the assault ... only Crone really does book reviews with this kind of intensity!

    https://www.academia.edu/9617780/Whats_a_caron_between_friends_Review_Article_of_Wilmsen_D._2014._Arabic_Indefinites_Interrogatives_and_Negators_A_Linguistic_History_of_Western_Dialects._Oxford_Oxford_University_Press._

    Rejecting the argument that a Safaitic inscription refers to the crucifixion of Jesus:

    http://www.academia.edu/9624741/A_reexamination_of_the_alleged_reference_to_the_crucifixion_of_Jesus_in_a_Safaitic_inscription

    A talk about the sound change from s to h in West Semitic languages, delivered at Yale, but unfortunately the transcript not published.

    https://www.academia.edu/9625820/2013_The_sound_change_s_h_in_west_Semitic_revisited

    Finally this looks like a great new book (edited by Larcher) about the subject of orality and writing as it relates to Qur'anic composition ... unfortunately it's in French.

    https://www.academia.edu/9636974/Oralit%C3%A9_et_%C3%A9criture_dans_la_Bible_et_le_Coran_sous_la_direction_de_Philippe_Cassuto_et_Pierre_Larcher_168p._Aix-en-Provence_Presses_Universitaires_de_Provence_2014
  • Pre-Islamic Levantine Arabic and the Qur'an
     Reply #29 - December 06, 2014, 01:40 AM

    Al-Jallad just posted a huge raft of awesome new articles. 

    An incendiary review of another scholar's recent book on Arabic linguistics, this is one of the most brutal beat-downs I've ever seen a linguist deliver.

    Al Jallad, University of Leiden. Is Wilmsen from Utrecht?
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