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 Topic: Objective morality

 (Read 6480 times)
  • 1« Previous thread | Next thread »
  • Objective morality
     OP - January 24, 2011, 03:32 PM

    Objective morality does not exist.  What does exist though is morality that is objective based on circumstances.  For example when a dog forces itself onto a bitch this is not objectively immoral; it ensures that the bitch breeds only with strong males and seems to cause her no distress.  However in the case of humans we do not need to ensure our females breed with the strongest male (due to our social nature, our technology, etc) and it causes a lot of stress so if we look at the facts objectively it appears that humans emulating this behaviour is immoral; there is no benefit, and there is an emotional cost.

    Moral/Immoral are really just what are beneficial or detrimental to a species.  If the benefit outweighs the cost and there is a lack of a better alternative you might decide something is beneficial (therefore moral), or on the opposite end of the scale you might decide something is immoral.  Morality isn't a 2 category system though, it is a sliding scale of cost/benefit where some items will sit very much in the middle and it becomes a matter of opinion as to whether something is right, wrong, or neither.

    So, where am I going with this?

    In the case of a dog forcing itself on a bitch this is not immoral.
    In the case of humans doing the same this is immoral, at least where I live.

    If objective morality existed then BOTH would be immoral.  Of course a religious apologist would claim that morality only applies to humans, in which case one must ask why some animals which partner for life will risk their own life to protect their partner even when there are no offspring involved.  In that case, why would god give some animals what look exactly like objective human morality?

    I don't come here any more due to unfair moderation.
    http://www.councilofexmuslims.com/index.php?topic=30785
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #1 - January 24, 2011, 05:19 PM

    Quote
    Objective morality does not exist.


    Quote
    Moral/Immoral are really just what are beneficial or detrimental to a species.


    But wait, if there's no objective morality, seeing as there's no objective basis for it, then how can you say that morality is predicated upon what is 'beneficial or detrimental to a species'? Do you mean that that's what you think morality is? That is, what you think morality is predicated upon?

    If the you think that's what morality is then can you truly state that there's no objective morality and be consistent in saying so given that the 'beneficial/detrimental to a species' idea seems to be an objectively applicable basis for morality? Or do you mean that if people try to define precisely what the 'beneficial' and 'detrimental' mean, then it will result in different conceptions of the 'beneficial' and 'detrimental' and so, even this cannot serve as an objective basis of morality?

    But in any case, I disagree with this basis of morality, as I find it too blunt and in want of nuance.

    For example, upon this basis, we may decide that eugenics, social darwinism, and so forth, are good. We may think that it is entirely correct to euthanise and sterilise the disabled and lower-IQed in the interest of improving the race or lessening its suffering or potential suffering.

    Surely this, however, is not in accordance with our understanding of morality? Of conceptions such as 'individual rights' which play such an important part in our approach to ethics? It seems that things are more sophisticated than judging what is moral merely by how something may harm or benefit the species collectively.

    Quote
    If objective morality existed then BOTH would be immoral.


    Well, it depends on the particular characteristics of the objective morality involved. But say there existed the kind of morality that you outlined regarding the lack of moral opprobrium on a dog that forces itself onto another:

    Quote
    when a dog forces itself onto a bitch this is not objectively immoral; it ensures that the bitch breeds only with strong males and seems to cause her no distress.


    If the criteria you mention here, i.e., no harm to the female, good breeding partners, etc., are part of the basis of an objective morality then one may well apply this to an instance in which a male human forced himself onto a human female, but seemed to cause her no distress and ensured the reproduction of better genes. In doing so, we could, according to this understanding, maintain that it was not immoral for him to do so. So both could be considered perfectly moral according to one form of objective morality, the bases of which permitted such behaviour.

    But it really just depends on the criteria you use. Going with a utilitarian ethical approach we may say that it's immoral for a human male to force himself onto a human female because that female would suffer considerably as a result, whereas it's not immoral for dogs to do so because the dog itself does not suffer as a result. You see, the matter of the suffering of the subject is being used as the basis of determining what is right and wrong in such cases. It is the hypothetical objective standard in such cases and yet the two actions are not regarding as being morally equal.

    Unless, of course, you mean an objective morality that is entirely different from anything else we know about or can think of, in which case, you may be right that according to that objective morality both actions would be wrong.
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #2 - January 24, 2011, 05:32 PM

    As long as people’s sense of moral relativism never stops them from doing what is absolutely the right thing to do, doesn’t compel them to intrude on the inalienable rights of others, or isn’t used as an excuse to stop condemning, stop ruthlessly hunting and policing, and stop bringing to an end with extreme prejudice and any means necessary the things that are absolutely wrong and should be abolished, I’ll let them have their flimsy subjective morality.

    Too fucking busy, and vice versa.
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #3 - January 24, 2011, 07:34 PM


    Moral/Immoral are really just what are beneficial or detrimental to a species.  



    Why? :/
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #4 - January 24, 2011, 08:35 PM


    But it really just depends on the criteria you use. Going with a utilitarian ethical approach we may say that it's immoral for a human male to force himself onto a human female because that female would suffer considerably as a result, whereas it's not immoral for dogs to do so because the dog itself does not suffer as a result. You see, the matter of the suffering of the subject is being used as the basis of determining what is right and wrong in such cases. It is the hypothetical objective standard in such cases and yet the two actions are not regarding as being morally equal.



    Reminds me of this video of theoreticalbullshit
    (caution: it's about 30 minutes long)

    http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dWNW-NXEudk

    <dust>: i love tea!!!
    <dust>: milky tea
    <three>: soooo gentle for my neck (from the inside)
    <dust>: mm
    <three>: it's definitely not called neck
    <dust>: lol
    <three>: what's the word i'm looking for
    <dust>: throat
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #5 - January 25, 2011, 12:17 AM

    Today I ripped all the plastic that was holding a six pack of coke into pieces, because I've heard that birds get tangled in those otherwise when they are washed on the shores... Just imagine how nice I am to humans Wink

    "That it is indeed the speech of an illustrious messenger" (The Koran 69:40)
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #6 - January 25, 2011, 01:04 AM

    The terms "objective" and "objectivity" are misnomers, it just happens to be more obvious when you apply it to morality.
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #7 - January 25, 2011, 01:10 AM

    Why? :/


    The infamous "Sez Who?" argument. 

    So once again I'm left with the classic Irish man's dilemma, do I eat the potato or do I let it ferment so I can drink it later?
    My political philosophy below
    http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bwGat4i8pJI&feature=g-vrec
    Just kidding, here are some true heros
    http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dBTgvK6LQqA
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #8 - January 25, 2011, 11:27 AM


    But wait, if there's no objective morality, seeing as there's no objective basis for it, then how can you say that morality is predicated upon what is 'beneficial or detrimental to a species'? Do you mean that that's what you think morality is? That is, what you think morality is predicated upon?


    It's easy to identify certain things objectively as being detrimental to our species.  If the majority of us went out and indiscriminately killed complete strangers for absolutely no reason this is clearly detrimental.  These people would kill the minority and then continue to kill each other, resulting in the end of our species or a population bottleneck so small that a simple virus might wipe out the rest of us.

    Is this a problem for life on Earth in general? No!  In fact it would probably benefit other forms of life greatly, but for humanity it is objectively detrimental - which is what people would call "Immoral". 


    If the you think that's what morality is then can you truly state that there's no objective morality and be consistent in saying so given that the 'beneficial/detrimental to a species' idea seems to be an objectively applicable basis for morality? Or do you mean that if people try to define precisely what the 'beneficial' and 'detrimental' mean, then it will result in different conceptions of the 'beneficial' and 'detrimental' and so, even this cannot serve as an objective basis of morality?


    Covered at the end of my reply...




    For example, upon this basis, we may decide that eugenics, social darwinism, and so forth, are good. We may think that it is entirely correct to euthanise and sterilise the disabled and lower-IQed in the interest of improving the race or lessening its suffering or potential suffering.


    You seem to be classifying things as being either moral immoral.  You really need to think of it as a sliding scale between moral and immoral.

    Killing strangers sits highly toward the immoral end of the scale because
    Benefit: zero
    Cost: high

    Having 100 million in the bank and giving away 1000 to pay for something to save someone's life is on the moral side of the scale because
    Benefit: high
    Cost: low

    When you get into justifying the killing of thousands or millions of people the cost is very high, so even if the benefits are very high it will only get as far as being somewhere in the middle - neither moral or immoral.  For it to be considered moral the benefits must be exceptionally high.

    Ending lives is a great cost to our species.  The more varied DNA that exists the more chance we have of surviving changes to our environment or surviving new diseases.


    Surely this, however, is not in accordance with our understanding of morality? Of conceptions such as 'individual rights' which play such an important part in our approach to ethics? It seems that things are more sophisticated than judging what is moral merely by how something may harm or benefit the species collectively.


    A specific right for an individual can cost very little and benefit the individual a lot. 



    Well, it depends on the particular characteristics of the objective morality involved. But say there existed the kind of morality that you outlined regarding the lack of moral opprobrium on a dog that forces itself onto another:

    If the criteria you mention here, i.e., no harm to the female, good breeding partners, etc., are part of the basis of an objective morality then one may well apply this to an instance in which a male human forced himself onto a human female, but seemed to cause her no distress and ensured the reproduction of better genes. In doing so, we could, according to this understanding, maintain that it was not immoral for him to do so. So both could be considered perfectly moral according to one form of objective morality, the bases of which permitted such behaviour.


    Physically strong breeding partners is no longer an issue with humans.  We don't need the biggest + strongest male to fertilise eggs in order to improve infant mortality rates.  Medical advancements are a far bigger contributing factor to lower infant mortality, and males no longer need to be the biggest and strongest in order to provide food and shelter.

    So there is no benefit in a human forcing himself on a woman, and a high probability of there being a cost to the woman such as emotional distress and even physical damage which can lead to infertility.

    You are asking if rape would be moral if it had benefits and no costs, the answer is "yes, just as it is in dogs" but the reality is that our species are very different from dogs. In dogs I would not call it rape, I would call it "their breeding process".  In humans there are high costs and no benefits which is why it is detrimental and why it is therefore classified as immoral.


    But it really just depends on the criteria you use. Going with a utilitarian ethical approach we may say that it's immoral for a human male to force himself onto a human female because that female would suffer considerably as a result, whereas it's not immoral for dogs to do so because the dog itself does not suffer as a result. You see, the matter of the suffering of the subject is being used as the basis of determining what is right and wrong in such cases. It is the hypothetical objective standard in such cases and yet the two actions are not regarding as being morally equal.


    There is a reason I used the example of killing complete strangers without reason.  There is no question at all that to our species it would be very detrimental if everyone went out doing this.  This shows that you can objectively say that something is detrimental to our species and therefore to objectively label it is immoral.


    Unless, of course, you mean an objective morality that is entirely different from anything else we know about or can think of, in which case, you may be right that according to that objective morality both actions would be wrong.


    My argument isn't about how to decide how far up/down the moral..immoral scale something should be placed, but to show that even if you feel you can identify something as being immoral using objective rationale it does not prove there is such a thing as objective morality. There are things which animals do which are beneficial to their species which would not be beneficial to the human species, and forcing our species' behaviours on another species might be detrimental to that species too.

    If there were such a thing as objective morality then the same things would be moral for animals as are for humans.

    If one wants to argue that there is objective morality for humans only then one also has to explain why animals display signs of having many of the same apparently moral behaviours.

    If one wants to argue that there is objective morality which changes depending on the species then you are accepting that this "objective" morality is subject to circumstances (i.e. which species you happen to be) in which case it is subjective morality.

    I don't come here any more due to unfair moderation.
    http://www.councilofexmuslims.com/index.php?topic=30785
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #9 - January 30, 2011, 01:30 PM

    Morality is evaluated subjectively and is context-dependent . What we call a 'conscience' or sense of morality, which might lead with refinement to altruism and benevolence, is something that has evolved as a psychological protective mechanism that ensures social compatibility and thus the preservation of our species/group as a whole.

    Individuals who may not have a true 'conscience' still exist today of course, but just as individuals with sickle-cell trait exist, or who have other characteristics which whilst not immediately and obviously beneficial in a certain context, may well be advantageous in another, or beneficial in some way to the whole group dynamic. The same is true of homosexuality. Homosexual individuals may not directly be procreating themselves, but this may be a side-effect of shared genetics which confers greater fertility upon female siblings for example, or it may be linked with other pro-social behaviours which benefit the group.

    There is evidence that there are certain areas of the brain eg ventromedial prefrontal cortex which are involved in the processing of 'moral dilemmas' and I would imagine that if we were to functionally image the brains of a random sample of the prison population, those who are diagnosed with "antisocial personality disorders" or other low-level 'disorders' of psychosocial function, would probably have deficits in certain areas of their cortex, or minor abnormalities in other areas of the limbic system such as those involved with processing fear stimuli e.g the amygdala. That is not to say that people with such neurobiological predispositions are not accountable to courts of law for their actions in the same way as , say, a man with severe Alzheimers would be excusable for pushing his wife down the stairs, but I am just saying that there are reasons for why we think, feel and act how we do which are grounded in neuroscience.

    In my opinion, people with antisocial characteristics or those with deficits in moral/ethical dilemma processing probably remain in the population today because there have been, are, and will be contexts in which such attitudes are surely beneficial to survival:selfishness, aggression, callousness and a lack of empathy are very useful when one has to ensure one's own survival in desperate conditions, or has to go to war.

    Sometimes the neuroanatomy that might be involved may be underdeveloped as a result of poor nutrition in childhood, or because their mother drank/used  drugs in pregnancy, or because of abuse or trauma in childhood etc. So again one might argue that the individual who later commits a 'crime' due to their abnormal processing could be argued to not be entirely responsible for their later abilities to correctly judge moral/ethical dilemmas and choose appropriately to the context. There is, in such people, a probable disadvantage in their ability to relate 'correct choices' regarding behaviour to the context. In people who are vulnerable to drug and alcohol addictions, there is probably hypersensitivity of the dopaminergic reward system in the limbic system, and so they are predisposed to these "immoral" behaviours, one could say. Is that their fault?

    I think therefore that when one judges another individual's actions as 'moral' or 'immoral' , this can only be a label that is being applied by subjective and external evaluation which should take into account the individual concerned's predisposing factors to that sort of behaviour/decision making, the individual's ability to make capacitous decisions regarding his behaviour, which includes intellectual function, and of course the context in which the act occurred. This is why, although  I accept we do need laws to establish boundaries of civilisation and to punish/negatively reinforce context-inappropriate antisocial behaviours, I do not find the simplistic notions of 'right' or 'wrong' and 'heaven' and 'hell' or objective morality as described by religions, to be a useful paradigm by which to live my life.


    Shaz

    ----------------------------------------
    drshahzadalikhan.blogspot.com


  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #10 - January 30, 2011, 02:48 PM

    It's easy to identify certain things objectively as being detrimental to our species.  If the majority of us went out and indiscriminately killed complete strangers for absolutely no reason this is clearly detrimental.  These people would kill the minority and then continue to kill each other, resulting in the end of our species or a population bottleneck so small that a simple virus might wipe out the rest of us.

    Is this a problem for life on Earth in general? No!  In fact it would probably benefit other forms of life greatly, but for humanity it is objectively detrimental - which is what people would call "Immoral". 


    Covered at the end of my reply...




    You seem to be classifying things as being either moral immoral.  You really need to think of it as a sliding scale between moral and immoral.

    Killing strangers sits highly toward the immoral end of the scale because
    Benefit: zero
    Cost: high

    Having 100 million in the bank and giving away 1000 to pay for something to save someone's life is on the moral side of the scale because
    Benefit: high
    Cost: low

    When you get into justifying the killing of thousands or millions of people the cost is very high, so even if the benefits are very high it will only get as far as being somewhere in the middle - neither moral or immoral.  For it to be considered moral the benefits must be exceptionally high.

    Ending lives is a great cost to our species.  The more varied DNA that exists the more chance we have of surviving changes to our environment or surviving new diseases.


    A specific right for an individual can cost very little and benefit the individual a lot. 



    Physically strong breeding partners is no longer an issue with humans.  We don't need the biggest + strongest male to fertilise eggs in order to improve infant mortality rates.  Medical advancements are a far bigger contributing factor to lower infant mortality, and males no longer need to be the biggest and strongest in order to provide food and shelter.

    So there is no benefit in a human forcing himself on a woman, and a high probability of there being a cost to the woman such as emotional distress and even physical damage which can lead to infertility.

    You are asking if rape would be moral if it had benefits and no costs, the answer is "yes, just as it is in dogs" but the reality is that our species are very different from dogs. In dogs I would not call it rape, I would call it "their breeding process".  In humans there are high costs and no benefits which is why it is detrimental and why it is therefore classified as immoral.


    There is a reason I used the example of killing complete strangers without reason.  There is no question at all that to our species it would be very detrimental if everyone went out doing this.  This shows that you can objectively say that something is detrimental to our species and therefore to objectively label it is immoral.


    My argument isn't about how to decide how far up/down the moral..immoral scale something should be placed, but to show that even if you feel you can identify something as being immoral using objective rationale it does not prove there is such a thing as objective morality. There are things which animals do which are beneficial to their species which would not be beneficial to the human species, and forcing our species' behaviours on another species might be detrimental to that species too.

    If there were such a thing as objective morality then the same things would be moral for animals as are for humans.

    If one wants to argue that there is objective morality for humans only then one also has to explain why animals display signs of having many of the same apparently moral behaviours.

    If one wants to argue that there is objective morality which changes depending on the species then you are accepting that this "objective" morality is subject to circumstances (i.e. which species you happen to be) in which case it is subjective morality.



    pwned.

    "If intelligence is feminine... I would want that mine would, in a resolute movement, come to resemble an impious woman."
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #11 - January 30, 2011, 03:38 PM

    The infamous "Sez Who?" argument. 


    I really want to know...
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #12 - January 30, 2011, 04:27 PM

    You see the thing is..the world don't move, to the beat of just one drum, what might be right for you, might not be right for some....so it takes, different strokes it takes different strokes it takes different strokes to move the world, yes it does, it takes....

    Seriously though, there is no objective morality, its all subjective and based on empathy mixed with practicality and reason. And this can vary from person to person, and species to species (don't forget we are animals, and not the only ones who have empathy and social constructs).
    the most easy way to show that there is no objective morality, is the very fact that people disagree on what is moral often. If there was an objective morality, there would be no need for debate or disagreement on if an action is moral or not

    The foundation of superstition is ignorance, the
    superstructure is faith and the dome is a vain hope. Superstition
    is the child of ignorance and the mother of misery.
    -Robert G. Ingersoll (1898)

     "Do time ninjas have this ability?" "Yeah. Only they stay silent and aren't douchebags."  -Ibl
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #13 - January 30, 2011, 04:27 PM

    Am I the only one who thinks it's immoral for a dog to force itself onto a female regardless of context? Utilitarianism has never been very much concerned with morality.

    I don't think it's hard to argue in favor of an objective morality (in a universalist sense). It's era-dependent, but only insofar as both Newtonian physics and quatum physics are objective for their respective eras.
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #14 - January 30, 2011, 04:30 PM

    the most easy way to show that there is no objective morality, is the very fact that people disagree on what is moral often. If there was an objective morality, there would be no need for debate or disagreement on if an action is moral or not


    That's silly! People disagree on many things. It happens in science every day of the week. But reality exists whether we quibble over it or not.

    I'm not able to pinpoint the exact logical fallacy you're using, but I sure hope somebody else will.
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #15 - January 30, 2011, 05:09 PM

    Raison
    Quote
    Am I the only one who thinks it's immoral for a dog to force itself onto a female regardless of context? Utilitarianism has never been very much concerned with morality.

    I don't think it's hard to argue in favor of an objective morality (in a universalist sense). It's era-dependent, but only insofar as both Newtonian physics and quatum physics are objective for their respective eras.



    Please do argue in favour of an  "objective morality" then, if you don't think it's hard.

    If you read and try to understand my above arguments against the notion of an "objective morality" then surely you can see the numerous reasons why and circumstances in which it seems ridiculous to apply universal judgments of  relative "morality" upon actions whose basis is partly consequent to a myriad of unquantifiable predetermined neurobiological factors, as well as environmental influences, which impose upon the individual (human or animal) concerned's capacity to make 'moral' decisions about a particular action at a particular time.

    Your example of the dog being "immoral" is overly simplistic, makes all sorts of assumptions that you have not taken into account,  depends upon the ability of animals to communicate with each other regarding informed consent to sexual activity (which I do not know how one assesses) and on one's ability to understand the animal's thought processes and neurobiology. If the dog (or indeed a human) is delirious in the context of an encephalitic infection which alters its perceptions and normal behaviour, then one would be stupid to consider the animal "immoral" or accountable to any significant degree for its aggressive actions.

    ----------------------------------------
    drshahzadalikhan.blogspot.com

    EDIT: note that I am not saying that it is "moral", "right" or acceptable and civilised behaviour for the dog to do this:  I am just saying that applying a blanket label of relative morality to such actions is not appropriate until many factors have been taken into account, rendering the concept of morality subjective and context-dependent rather than purely objective.

  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #16 - January 30, 2011, 06:11 PM

    Am I the only one who thinks it's immoral for a dog to force itself onto a female regardless of context?


    You think it is immoral for a male dog to force itself onto a female?

    I don't come here any more due to unfair moderation.
    http://www.councilofexmuslims.com/index.php?topic=30785
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #17 - January 30, 2011, 06:16 PM

    Might help to define 'objective' here, people seem to be talking past each other...
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #18 - January 30, 2011, 06:51 PM

    If you can't pinpoint it, it may be that I'm not using one.

    Morality is an abstract. A construct. It can't be objective. The universe has no morality. Morality does not exist outside our minds, and that is why the fact that people disagree on what is moral is a simple way to demonstrate that.

    Its like asking what is objectively the best flavor of ice cream. If there was an objective best flavor of ice cream, we would all taste it and agree its the best. Since we disagree on the best flavor, this is an easy way to show there is no objective most yummy flavor.


    That's silly! People disagree on many things. It happens in science every day of the week. But reality exists whether we quibble over it or not.

    I'm not able to pinpoint the exact logical fallacy you're using, but I sure hope somebody else will.


    The foundation of superstition is ignorance, the
    superstructure is faith and the dome is a vain hope. Superstition
    is the child of ignorance and the mother of misery.
    -Robert G. Ingersoll (1898)

     "Do time ninjas have this ability?" "Yeah. Only they stay silent and aren't douchebags."  -Ibl
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #19 - January 30, 2011, 07:03 PM

    Objective, I would probably define here in reference to 'morality', such that 'morality' would be a quantity or quality which is absolute, externally observable, measurable and verifiable to universally concordant conclusions via the scientific method with no room for modification or interpretation of the result according to opinion or bias. Such as, for example, the number of trees in a forest or the diameter of a football.

    (One could argue that nothing is absolute or truly objective and everything is subjective or relative to something else or some sort of scale, which I would agree with, but let us presume we are talking about properties in relation to our Earth and known space/time constants for the time being).

    I would continue therefore, that the concept of 'morality' is as far from the idea of an objective quantity as one could get. Trying to apply a measure of morality to a desire , action or behaviour, in an objective way like one might try to apply a measurement of pressure in millimetres of mercury, is nonsensical - the deemed morality of an action is dependent on the observer's own moral standards and criteria, as well as dependent on the numerous environemental and biological factors I've already highlighted that may have been precipitating or predisposing to that behaviour or action. This would take some of the 'moral weight' off the perpetrator and put some of the blame or responsibility at the feet of nature or circumstance.

    ----------------------------------------------
    drshahzadalikhan.blogspot.com
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #20 - January 30, 2011, 07:40 PM

    My initial point is that there is no such thing as objective morality, the best you can do is to objectively say that a specific case is moral given the circumstances.

    If I kill the entire human race that could objectively be said to be immoral.  However if it were true that I had invented a machine for seeing into the future and saw that if I didn't kill all humans then they would kill all life on the planet then one might conclude it is objectively moral to kill all humans.

    Objectively deciding something is moral is not objective morality; I just objectively decided the same action was both moral and immoral - but my objective conclusion was based on new knowledge.

    I don't come here any more due to unfair moderation.
    http://www.councilofexmuslims.com/index.php?topic=30785
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #21 - April 21, 2011, 09:03 PM

    People should define the concept of morality before they assert that there are no objective truths to such a concept.

    Too fucking busy, and vice versa.
  • Re: Objective morality
     Reply #22 - April 21, 2011, 11:40 PM

    i haven't fully thought out a system of morality yet, but i only think that objective morality can exist within a well-defined, self-contained system formulated from principles that which moral truths are derived, similar to the nature of axioms with mathematics. whether these moral truths exist independently of humans is a question i haven't figured out yet(and i think might be dependant upon whether mathematical/logical truths are mind-independent, since i'm using the exact same principle so if i do figure this out, i suppose i could do so by analogy) . but i think that the moral truths derived by such principles, or axioms would be 'objective' with respect to said system(which actually makes no sense, which is why i tend to stay away from the word 'objective'). what are such principles? i don't know. what can we derive from them? i haven't figured it out yet. this is just sort of a sketch of what i think about morality right now.
  • Objective morality
     Reply #23 - February 09, 2015, 01:41 PM

    Quote
    i haven't fully thought out a system of morality yet, but i only think that objective morality can exist within a well-defined, self-contained system formulated from principles that which moral truths are derived, similar to the nature of axioms with mathematics.


    I'm in agreement with the above. However, some argue that moral facts can be posited as brute as opposed to axiomatic. The benefits of an axiomatic approach is that if an axiom can be shown to be wrong in a specific context, it can be delegated to another purpose or ditched entirely. A mathematical example would be Euclid's fifth postulate. 

    Although I lean toward error theory, it's worth mentioning that atheism and moral realism are consistent, perhaps more so than theism & moral realism (in the sense of God grounding objective morality).  Pointing this out pretty much refutes the "God grounds morality" line of argument which is popular within dawah circles.

    Here is a related read: http://www.patheos.com/blogs/secularoutpost/2013/04/18/atheistic-moral-realism/

    My mind runs, I can never catch it even if I get a head start.
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