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Theme Changer

 Topic: right, wrong

 (Read 22703 times)
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  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #60 - May 23, 2010, 10:24 AM

    Firstly, we were talking about right and wrong - what do laws have to do with that?

    Sorry. I meant that incest is something I don't "like" but at the same time don't consider wrong.


    Secondly, the question was about whether there was any reason to think that the principle you identified for determining right and wrong was something that was true or something that you just happened to like.  If it is true, then there should be some evidence to show that it is true - i.e. part of reality.  If there is no evidence, then it can only be something that you happen to like - and my contention that there is no (moral) right and wrong would be correct.

    I see what you mean. Of course it's not "true" in that sense. I thought you meant that people consider the things they don't like wrong and the things that they like right. I don't and I gave you the example above.
    I pointed out that my principle is basically no harm to others (probably I should say no direct harm). Of course there is no "evidence" for my principle but it is consistent and has nothing to do with my personal preference.
    Although I admit my choosing a principle to determine right and wrong that doesn't correspond my personal preference is in itself a personal preference. So yeah you got a point there.
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #61 - May 23, 2010, 01:35 PM

    Quote from: Iraqi Atheist
    Sorry. I meant that incest is something I don't "like" but at the same time don't consider wrong

    So there would be some behaviours that you don't like to engage in yourself and some that you don't like anyone to engage in.  I still wouldn't see this as any reason to call anything either right or wrong.
    Quote from: Iraqi Atheist
    I see what you mean. Of course it's not "true" in that sense. I thought you meant that people consider the things they don't like wrong and the things that they like right. I don't and I gave you the example above.
    I pointed out that my principle is basically no harm to others (probably I should say no direct harm). Of course there is no "evidence" for my principle but it is consistent and has nothing to do with my personal preference.
    Although I admit my choosing a principle to determine right and wrong that doesn't correspond my personal preference is in itself a personal preference. So yeah you got a point there.

    I'm not sure 'no harm' or 'no direct harm' solves the problem I mentioned above.  If an infringement of freedom is 'harm' then the problem of sitting on the beach remains, doesn't it?
    I would also think there are an endless supply of such principles.  'Do whatever I want' might be one.  'Act for the benefit of my reputation' might be another.  Although I'm not sure what makes any of these consistent.  Consistent with what?
    If there is no evidence, then, like you say, the selection of any particular principle is no more than it being the one you happen to like.
    If a rapist liked the principle 'rape as many people as possible' then how would his choice be any less consistent than yours?
    And if it was no less consistent, how would your claim that 'rape is always wrong' stand up?  Surely it would only be true for you and for whoever happened to like your principle as well?
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #62 - May 23, 2010, 04:54 PM

    Then you agree with me.  The existence of a right depends on the question of 'justification'.  If that is the case, it cannot be both dependent on what is right and wrong and determine what is right and wrong - that would be circular.  (This is somewhat implicit in the use of the word 'right', isn't it?)
    We agree again.  My sitting on the beach infringes the freedom of another and, according to IA's definition, would therefore be wrong.  Hence it doesn't appear to be a very workable definition of right and wrong.  In a shared world, our very existence infringes the freedom of others and therefore it is wrong to even exist.

    Of course, this is all beside the point that the principle doesn't have any evidence to support it in the first place.  If it simply a 'preferred' principle, then it demonstrates my earlier claim that there is no right and wrong - only things that you like and don't like.


    OK. Let me try to clarify.

    A 'right' isn't really a singular thing that's separated from other rights. Every single right is actually just the same thing. That is, what I wrote above: an asset/privilage that cannot be confiscated/abridged without justification.

    Take the right to life, for example. Everyone has a life, and it's not their possession of a life that requires justification, it is only the taking of it. Or take property rights; everyone may possess what they've acquired through legitimate means. It is not their possession of such property that requires justification, it is only the confiscation of it that does.

    That is what 'rights' are. I don't think that's circular. Please explain if you think it is.

    I found your first paragraph unclear. I don't know whether you're claiming that it's justification or rights that are predicated upon, and  that determine what is, right.

    As for the 'infringing someone's freedom' example, it's not a position that I ever took. I'm not even sure that's what IA meant. When he said 'infringe on someone's freedom,' I think he meant something like curtailing someone's freedom of expression, which is an infraction against a person, and not something like simply limiting another's freedom in the general sense. As I've said, absolute freedom is necessarily limited.

    Either way, let's not bother discussing a strawman.

    And I don't regard this as being a matter of simple preference. Any more than I regard logic as being a simple matter of preference.

    Take the syllogism:

    P1 All men are primates
    P2 Socrates is a man
    C Therefore, Socrates is a primate

    One may prefer or like a different conclusion, but it doesn't really make a difference to the fact of the conclusion. Of course there are people with different preferences, but it doesn't mean that there therefore exists no objective, logical and consistent morality.

    By the way, I know you didn't claim that mere preferences of belief negate a fact, I'm just trying to clarify a point.  Smiley

    So take the example of a sociopathic nihilist, who does not consider the idea of justification and who simply takes lives and property without hesitation. Such a moral outlook would be completely arbitrary and inapplicable. It would be, essentially, a non-system of ethics.

    Of course, most humans aren't like that, and can't live in such a state. The whole point of ethical inquiry is to find and construct a non-arbitrary, non-contradictory and fully applicable ethical system, as humans require to live and to live well.

    And so, in trying to devise the most effective moral system; one that is non-contradictory, non-arbitrary and most congenial to the well-being of individuals living according to it, one simply cannot build this moral system on mere arbitrary preferences.

    Some moral premises, if applied, will result in contradiction. Such premises will not and cannot be used to produce an effective ethical system, and so are to be discarded.

    By contrast, other premises will not result in contradiction, and will be fully applicable. Such premises may be kept as a valid part of the theory.

    So it's not just a matter of arbitrary preference of moral opinion. Premises must be logical and consistent. Mere preference has got nothing to do with it.
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #63 - May 23, 2010, 08:52 PM


    I am SO using that line!!  Afro


    One can try being a weekday veg ...
    "... meat amazing causes more emission than all of transportation combined"  - apparently ...
    http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=k7sKMj85hDw
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #64 - May 23, 2010, 09:19 PM

    Yeah, that's interesting. I noticed you also posted a video with Peter Singer.

    I find Singer's philosophical argument for vegetarianism to be pretty much irrefutable. If one is to be morally consistent, one will have to abstain from killing other sentient beings for food and the like.

    At the same time, the practical implications of vegetarianism are interesting. Meat production does result in things like deforestation, greater land use and so on. With countries with large populations, like China, becoming increasingly modernized and now having access to these kinds of foods, the number of people that eat meat will also drastically increase.

    And so, it's quite possible that continuing to eat animals on this scale is completely unsustainable. We may get to a point where we all have to become vegetarians.  wacko
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #65 - May 24, 2010, 12:21 AM

    So there would be some behaviours that you don't like to engage in yourself and some that you don't like anyone to engage in.  I still wouldn't see this as any reason to call anything either right or wrong.

    Not really. You entirely missed my point. I don't like to engage in incest and I don't like any other person to engage in it too. But at the same time I don't think it's wrong and I don't want to outlaw it. There is a difference between wrong and undesirable.
    So the fact that I don't like something doesn't determine whether or not I consider it morally wrong. My personal preferences does not dictate my view of what is right and what is wrong.


    I'm not sure 'no harm' or 'no direct harm' solves the problem I mentioned above.  If an infringement of freedom is 'harm' then the problem of sitting on the beach remains, doesn't it?

    In this extreme example, the person sitting at the beach is not infringing on the rights of of the other person.


    I would also think there are an endless supply of such principles.  'Do whatever I want' might be one.  'Act for the benefit of my reputation' might be another.  Although I'm not sure what makes any of these consistent.  Consistent with what?
    If there is no evidence, then, like you say, the selection of any particular principle is no more than it being the one you happen to like.
    If a rapist liked the principle 'rape as many people as possible' then how would his choice be any less consistent than yours?
    And if it was no less consistent, how would your claim that 'rape is always wrong' stand up?  Surely it would only be true for you and for whoever happened to like your principle as well?

    Like I said I get your point. People has different moral compasses. I only claim that mine is superior  grin12
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #66 - May 24, 2010, 08:52 AM

    Quote from: Zebedee
    A 'right' isn't really a singular thing that's separated from other rights. Every single right is actually just the same thing. That is, what I wrote above: an asset/privilage that cannot be confiscated/abridged without justification.


    And it's the 'without justification' part of this definition that, to me, makes it circular if you want to include 'right' in the determination of 'right and wrong'.  How do you know whether something is 'justified' without first knowing whether it is right or wrong?
    Quote from: Zebedee
    Take the right to life, for example. Everyone has a life, and it's not their possession of a life that requires justification, it is only the taking of it. Or take property rights; everyone may possess what they've acquired through legitimate means. It is not their possession of such property that requires justification, it is only the confiscation of it that does.

    That is what 'rights' are. I don't think that's circular. Please explain if you think it is.

    I found your first paragraph unclear. I don't know whether you're claiming that it's justification or rights that are predicated upon, and  that determine what is, right.

    You have simply assumed your conclusion here - 'that the taking of life requires justification'.  Without first knowing whether it is right or wrong to take a life, how can you know whether taking a life requires justification and therefore whether a right to life exists at all?  It would be just as logical to say 'the possession of a life requires justification' and you might get just the opposite answer.  There is nothing inherent in the existence of life to say whether it is right or wrong to take it.

    I hope that's a bit clearer about where I think the circularity is.

    As far as I can see from your argument 'morality determines justification determines whether a right exist determines what is moral'.
    Quote from: Zebedee
    And I don't regard this as being a matter of simple preference. Any more than I regard logic as being a simple matter of preference.

    The definition of logic isn't a matter of preference.  The degree to which you let logic determine your morality, is.
    Quote from: Zebedee
    One may prefer or like a different conclusion, but it doesn't really make a difference to the fact of the conclusion. Of course there are people with different preferences, but it doesn't mean that there therefore exists no objective, logical and consistent morality.

    Of course not.  I would think the question of existence of an objective morality would rely on some kind of evidence.  In the absence of that, all we have are preferences.
    Quote from: Zebedee
    So take the example of a sociopathic nihilist, who does not consider the idea of justification and who simply takes lives and property without hesitation. Such a moral outlook would be completely arbitrary and inapplicable. It would be, essentially, a non-system of ethics.

    But, as far as I can see, not illogical.  Is it unreasonable for the nihilist to ask for evidence of the existence of an objective morality?  If no such evidence is forthcoming, surely the nihilist's conclusion is the logical one - even if it is one that most people wouldn't prefer.
    Quote from: Zebedee
    Of course, most humans aren't like that, and can't live in such a state. The whole point of ethical inquiry is to find and construct a non-arbitrary, non-contradictory and fully applicable ethical system, as humans require to live and to live well.

    And so, in trying to devise the most effective moral system; one that is non-contradictory, non-arbitrary and most congenial to the well-being of individuals living according to it, one simply cannot build this moral system on mere arbitrary preferences.

    To me, this sounds like you agree with me.  'Most human would 'prefer' that an objective morality exists and don't like to live as nihilists.

    Your use of the terms 'most effective' and 'most congenial to the well-being' imply some kind of vantage point outside of human experience from which to judge this.  But no such vantage point exists.  If the meaning of these could objectively be determined, you would already have the answer to your problem.  The very existence of different, conflicting preferences among humans demonstrates that 'most effective' simply cannot be determined.  As a result, preferences is all you have.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    Some moral premises, if applied, will result in contradiction. Such premises will not and cannot be used to produce an effective ethical system, and so are to be discarded.

    By contrast, other premises will not result in contradiction, and will be fully applicable. Such premises may be kept as a valid part of the theory.

    So it's not just a matter of arbitrary preference of moral opinion. Premises must be logical and consistent. Mere preference has got nothing to do with it.

    Your addition of 'arbitrary' here did not come from me.  If at the root of any ethical system lies a preference - even if it is of a large number of people - then my contention that 'right and wrong' do not exist must be correct - or at least that we do not know that they exist.  The position of the nihilist is no less logical or consistent than yours.
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #67 - May 24, 2010, 09:04 AM

    Quote from: Iraqi Atheist
    Not really. You entirely missed my point. I don't like to engage in incest and I don't like any other person to engage in it too. But at the same time I don't think it's wrong and I don't want to outlaw it. There is a difference between wrong and undesirable.

    You revert to 'outlaw' again.  If you did think it was wrong, would that necessarily mean that you would want to outlaw it?
    But as far as I can see, you are simply introducing another preference - that people should generally be free to do what they want - to over-ride your desire that no-one engages in incest.  At its root, this is still a question of desire rather than right or wrong.

    Quote from: Iraqi Atheist
    So the fact that I don't like something doesn't determine whether or not I consider it morally wrong. My personal preferences does not dictate my view of what is right and what is wrong.

    Yes, they do.  It's just that you subjugate your preferences regarding certain behaviours to other preferences regarding rules for people's behaviour in general.  At root, they are still your preferences.
    Quote from: Iraqi Atheist
    In this extreme example, the person sitting at the beach is not infringing on the rights of of the other person.

    I don't think it's that extreme.  It's rather a commonplace example, I would think.  But before you talked about freedom.  If you want to rely on rights then I think you have the same problem I have been trying to explain to Zebedee.
    Quote from: Iraqi Atheist
    Like I said I get your point. People has different moral compasses. I only claim that mine is superior

    Ok.  But I think it's a pretty stark statement to have to say that 'rape is not always wrong'.
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #68 - May 25, 2010, 03:47 AM

    If you did think it was wrong, would that necessarily mean that you would want to outlaw it?

    Yes. I said so in one of my previous posts. If I think it is wrong then I think it should be outlawed.


    Yes, they do

    No, they don't.


    It's just that you subjugate your preferences regarding certain behaviours to other preferences regarding rules for people's behaviour in general. At root, they are still your preferences.

    Not certain but all behaviours as long as there's no harm to others and everybody is a consenting adult.


    I don't think it's that extreme.  It's rather a commonplace example, I would think.

    I meant extremely petty. Anyway I will answer your question. In my opinion you are free to sit anywhere at the beach (with the exception of private property of course). Now if you wanna sit at the same spot where somebody else is sitting, tough shit. Your have no more right than that guy and given the fact that he was there before you, he has priority.
    It's the same as going to somebody who's smoking in the high street and telling him to put off his cig. 


    But before you talked about freedom.  If you want to rely on rights then I think you have the same problem I have been trying to explain to Zebedee.

    Your freedom extends to sitting anywhere at the beach as long as you don't infringe on the right of others. In this case the guy who's already sitting at that spot has temporary a right to that spot.


    Ok.  But I think it's a pretty stark statement to have to say that 'rape is not always wrong'.

    I never said that. In fact my words were "rape is always wrong". http://www.councilofexmuslims.com/index.php?topic=10359.msg271081#msg271081

  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #69 - May 25, 2010, 04:38 AM

    Quote from: Iraqi Atheist
    Yes. I said so in one of my previous posts. If I think it is wrong then I think it should be outlawed.

    I would have thought there were some behaviours that would harm others but that it might not be practicable to outlaw so I'm surprised that there is a direct relationship between things that you consider wrong and things that you think should be outlawed.  For example, some might think it was wrong to verbally insult your parents but that it was not practical to make it against the law.

    Quote from: Iraqi Atheist
    Not certain but all behaviours as long as there's no harm to others and everybody is a consenting adult.

    I won't labour the point but I don't really see a difference between 'all behaviours as long as....' and 'certain behaviours'.
    Quote from: Iraqi Atheist
    I never said that. In fact my words were "rape is always wrong".

    Yes, I remember but as we have established in the discussion this is clearly not true because there is no evidence to support it.  'rape is wrong' - for you because you happen to like a principle that results in this assessment.  If a rapist likes a different principle, then he is every bit as justified in saying 'rape is always right'.  It is no less a logical and consistent position than yours and simply reflects a different set of preferences.

    'Rape is always wrong' is not a statement about reality, it is just a statement about your personal preferences - no more meaningful than 'I like chocolate ice cream' or 'I don't like mushrooms'.
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #70 - May 25, 2010, 06:40 AM

    The example about insulting parents made me realize my semantic fallacy. I'm confusing what is immoral/socially unacceptable with what should be illegal.
    You see, I don't think anything that's immoral or socially unacceptable is wrong. I realize now that the dictionary definition of the word "wrong" is immoral which is why we misunderstood each other.

    So in my statement that everything that's wrong should be illegal I don't mean everything that's immoral or socially unacceptable should be illegal. Just everything that's wrong according to my definition of the word.

    I also acknowledge that when it comes to determining what is moral/unacceptable, it all comes down to personal preference. My principle is not enough to do that as it has more to do with law than with morality.

    However, if I was in charge of making laws -which I realize now is a different subject-, I would not let my preferences determine the laws and regulate other people's lives. For instance, I wouldn't make it illegal to insult your parents despite the fact that I think it's immoral. My principle would be consistent in crafting laws.
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #71 - May 25, 2010, 04:09 PM

    Thanks for the clarification. 

    I still think you talk of preferences too narrowly.  In the sense that the foundation of the principle you are using to decide what should be legal and what is not is still just preference, you would indeed be 'letting your preferences determine the laws and regulate other people's lives'.  The fact that we have preferences both for individual behaviours and overall patterns of behaviour (or principles) and that these might be in conflict is a normal part of every day life.  I might prefer to sleep around but I also prefer faithfulness in marriage.  Preferences need not be only instinctual desires as I would see them.
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #72 - May 26, 2010, 01:53 AM

    TBH, I don't get your point.

    I conceded that I agree with you in that our personal preferences determine what we think is morally right or wrong. You agree with me so let's end the right/wrong discussion.


    As for what should be made illegal, you also say that no matter what principle I follow it will all still boil down to personal preference. Is that what you're saying?

    If so, do you mean the fact that I chose the principle *no harm to others unless they are consenting adults* is in itself a personal preference? If that's what you mean then yes I concur. I chose that principle because i prefer it i.e preference. It's a subjective principle.

    But if you mean that I will not abide by this principle and let my personal preferences dictate what should be illegal then I don't agree. There are things that I find abhorrent, undesirable, unhealthy, immoral; things that I wouldn't do and wish nobody would do; but still wouldn't outlaw.
    Suicide, incest, polygamy, cheating, heroin, smoking....ect are examples. In fact if someone opened a "Torture Clinic" where consenting mentally-capable adults pay money to be physically tortured, I wouldn't make it illegal.


  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #73 - May 26, 2010, 03:58 AM

    You got it in the first three paragraphs.  The point of this is that, it doesn't really matter whether you would abide by the principle or not.  The principle has no more rational or logical standing than any other desire you might have nor is your process of decision-making about laws (or morality) in any way 'better' (in an objective sense) than anyone else's - religious or otherwise.  It is only 'preferred'.
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #74 - May 26, 2010, 04:10 AM

    In an objective sense you are 100% correct.
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #75 - May 27, 2010, 12:45 PM

    And it's the 'without justification' part of this definition that, to me, makes it circular if you want to include 'right' in the determination of 'right and wrong'.  How do you know whether something is 'justified' without first knowing whether it is right or wrong?

    You have simply assumed your conclusion here - 'that the taking of life requires justification'.  Without first knowing whether it is right or wrong to take a life, how can you know whether taking a life requires justification and therefore whether a right to life exists at all?  It would be just as logical to say 'the possession of a life requires justification' and you might get just the opposite answer.  There is nothing inherent in the existence of life to say whether it is right or wrong to take it.

    I hope that's a bit clearer about where I think the circularity is.

    As far as I can see from your argument 'morality determines justification determines whether a right exist determines what is moral'.

    The definition of logic isn't a matter of preference.  The degree to which you let logic determine your morality, is.

    Of course not.  I would think the question of existence of an objective morality would rely on some kind of evidence.  In the absence of that, all we have are preferences.But, as far as I can see, not illogical.  Is it unreasonable for the nihilist to ask for evidence of the existence of an objective morality?  If no such evidence is forthcoming, surely the nihilist's conclusion is the logical one - even if it is one that most people wouldn't prefer.To me, this sounds like you agree with me.  'Most human would 'prefer' that an objective morality exists and don't like to live as nihilists.

    Your use of the terms 'most effective' and 'most congenial to the well-being' imply some kind of vantage point outside of human experience from which to judge this.  But no such vantage point exists.  If the meaning of these could objectively be determined, you would already have the answer to your problem.  The very existence of different, conflicting preferences among humans demonstrates that 'most effective' simply cannot be determined.  As a result, preferences is all you have.
    Your addition of 'arbitrary' here did not come from me.  If at the root of any ethical system lies a preference - even if it is of a large number of people - then my contention that 'right and wrong' do not exist must be correct - or at least that we do not know that they exist.  The position of the nihilist is no less logical or consistent than yours.


    Sorry for the late response. I'm a lazy git.  Smiley

    Firstly, we got to get a distinction out of the way.

    When I say, 'objective morality'  I mean a morality that is consistent and objectively applicable to every individual; a morality that doesn't grant any special privileges to anyone arbitrarily.

    What I think you think I mean is an absolute morality, something that's an intrinsic, immutable part of existence. Hence why you ask me for 'evidence.' Of course, no physical evidence for morality exists, any more than it does for logic. You would have to presuppose logic in order to prove that it exists.

    So just to be clear, I mean an objective morality, not an absolute one.

    Now you say that it is circular because you say I presuppose the objectives of morality. That is, to protect people from the undue harm of others. Whereas you say that another person could just as easily come up with different objectives for morality, and could devise a morality to fit those objectives.

    It's entirely true that another person could come along and devise a morality that is entirely different. Just as someone could come along and devise a variant of the scientific method.

    But here's the thing. Both morality and scientific inquiry are means to an end, one to manage the interaction of humans (or indeed other animals) in a society/group, and the other to discern what is true and what is not.

    Like the scientific method, morality is essential for social beings. Neither of these things do people simply have because they 'prefer' them. Both morality and an effective method of determining what is true are essential for the survival of humanity. Our choosing these things over moral and epistemic nihilism is not a matter of preference.

    Consider, you are a philosophical nihlist. However, I'm pretty sure that you have a moral sense. You apply a standard of morality to your own behaviour and to that of others, because you have no choice. Morality is an intrinsic part of a human, as well as some other social animals.

    One can be a philosophical nihilist in a theoretical sense, but not in a practical one. It is simply not possible to live in a disordered society, nor is it desirable. Yes, people prefer not to live as nihilists, but that still doesn't mean that preference is the basis for morality.

    And so, since morality is fundamentally the means by which we attempt to preserve society and the people in it and given that it is an essential part of the human make-up, we have no choice in a applying it. The need for morality is not a matter of preference. Moral nihilism is not a viable option.

    Therefore, given the complete inapplicability of nihilism, and the necessity of morality, it is best to develop a kind of morality that is most consistent with the fundamental principles of morality, as mentioned above.

    And here it is. You say, 'but someone could come up with different moral prerogatives. Nothing mandates that any person must adhere to your moral objectives.'

    Correct. There is nothing that compels anyone to accept any form of morality. Nor is there anything that compels a person to be philosophically consistent.

    But given the necessity of humans exercising moral judgement, and given that morality is the means by which humans attempt to best manage their society and protect the individuals in it, some moral ideas will be more effective at securing the objectives of morality than others.

    Here you object to the assumption that morality is about 'protecting individuals in society,' because someone else could come up with different moral prerogatives. Yes, they could.

    However, as I stated, morality is essential, just as language and emprical inquiry are. Given the essential nature of morality, and these other things, any moral or like system that founded itself (purely theoretically speaking) on arbitrary or absurd premises or notions would be completely abortive from the outset.

    You see, someone could similarly develop a system of empirical inquiry that had poor standards of evidence or the like. But such a system would be completely unable to fulfil the purpose for which it exists in the first place. As a result, no one would or could adopt it as a viable  system with any useful practical application. And given that knowing what is true and false is a matter of necessity and survival, such a system could not exist other than in a purely theoretical setting.

    It is the same with morality. It is something with practical application, and the very objective of it, just like with empirical inquiry, is to achieve some necessary end in the real world. Systems that fail to produce the desired end are discarded.

    And so, while it is theoretically possible to develop a morality based on arbitrary principles, it is not practically possible, and therefore such systems would simply be jettisoned as useless.

    Actual morality does not work like that. Morality is to be applied in the  real world to protect the individuals in it as that is the universal purpose of morality in the first place, although some systems are better at it than others.

    The system that I advocate is simply one which seeks to place all people on the same level and give no one any special, arbitrary privilege.

    So again you may say, 'Well, that's just your moral perspective. Someone else may that certain people have certain exclusive privileges.'

    To which I say, but such a morality would rely on invoking premises that don't really have any basis, and which do not conform to the fundamental purpose of morality in the first place. At the same time, a morality that relied on such arbitrary axioms could just as easily be twisted to suit any other individual or group.

    The whole result of such a morality would complete moral disorder and chaos, and thus the end for which morality is developed in the first place would not be reachable, necessitating the return to its basic premises.

    So, given these problems with arbitrary or contradictory morality, I claim that there is a morality that need not cause such complications, and because it is the morality that conforms most closely to the objective, necessary aims of morality, it is therefore this moralty that should be adopted in place of others.

    How to affect this if no-one is compelled to be consistent or objective?

    Well, I believe it's partly down to the fundamental desire of humans to be consistent and objective. Of course, people will often suspend such things in the case of cultural, ideological or religious bias, but by and large, people still possess the ability to discern what is consistent and what is not, even if it conflicts with what they would rather believe.

    I imagine that you're a reasonable person, so, suppose if I persuaded you that one of your positions was inconsistent or unsupported, would you then continue to adhere to it and consciously regard it as still being valid or true? Most likely not, even if you wanted the proposition to be true.

    I think morality works in the same way. People can be and are persuaded by ideas that are more consistent and invoke less problems than their own, even if an obstinate person may persist in believing contradictory things.

    I see the argument as something more like this:

    Morality is necessary -- protecting individuals within society is the necessary goal of morality --  therefore, moral premises can/should only be applied if they are consistent with this necessary aim of morality

    Note also that there is no necessary premise of morality that is to arbitrarily elevate or give special rights to any specific group. That is an interpolated idea that is not universally applicable, as it itself is merely asserted and is not an axiom of morality.

    Your 'vantage point' is the necessary goal of morality, which is understood, all be it not entirely consistently, by most human beings.

    And the definition of logic isn't a matter of preference, but the degree to which one applies it consistently can be. People often fail to notice non-sequiturs and poor deduction and induction.

    You see, someone is likewise perfectly able to develop an inconsistent world-view. That does not mean, however, that a truly consistent and logically sound way of looking at reality doesn't exist. It is the same for morality.

    As for the consistency of the nihlist; I doubt it very much. Nihlism itself is a non-position with respect to morality and so there aren't even any moral premises to be inconsistent with each other. As for the nihlist themselves, I find it very hard to believe that there is a human that is even capable of lacking a moral sense of some kind, however ill-developed.

    Like I said, a person may be, in the philosophical sense, a nihlist, but the fact that they live in a human society as a rational being precludes them for being a nihlist in any practical and even psychological sense.

    You will not find physical evidence to support the existence of morality, any more than you will find the evidence you need to show that logic exists. Some things fall out of the sphere of physical, empirical evidence.

    To summarise, morality is a necessary part of a human being, and morality has a necessary goal, that is not arbitrarily decided by human beings but which may be said to intrinsic to our understanding of morality. Just as we have an intrinsic understanding of what we have to do to find out what is and is not the case in the physical world. The goals of both of these things are not decided by us, nor are they a matter of simple preference.

    And I say, that the morality that I believe in is not absolute. It is contingent upon a social context and other rational moral agents. So, you will not find 'evidence' of it as such as it is not some intrinsic part of the universe.

    I think you're saying that it is 'just a matter of preference' is too simplistic. I mean, one can say that it is just a matter of preference whether we choose to breathe or not. It's not really something that we can consciously choose to do or neglect to do. In the cases of both morality and breathing, these are things that are simply intrinsic to our nature, while they might not be necessary in an absolute sense.

    Phew. If only I put in this kind of effort studying Philosophy at uni  grin12
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #76 - May 28, 2010, 01:21 AM

    Outstanding post Zebedee.
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #77 - May 28, 2010, 05:12 PM

    Outstanding post Zebedee.


    Holy shit, someone actually read it?

    Cheers, man  Afro
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #78 - June 06, 2010, 09:07 AM

    Zebedee,

    Thanks for the long response and my apologies also for the delay.

    In terms of definitions, I don't really follow your use of 'objective'.  In the context of discussions about morality, it is normally used to mean something that exists independently of individual thought and is often contrasted with 'subjective' meaning something that only exists in individual thought.

    As in:

    Main Entry: 1ob·jec·tive
    Pronunciation: \əb-ˈjek-tiv, äb-\
    Function: adjective
    Date: 1647

    1 a : relating to or existing as an object of thought without consideration of independent existence —used chiefly in medieval philosophy b : of, relating to, or being an object, phenomenon, or condition in the realm of sensible experience independent of individual thought and perceptible by all observers: having reality independent of the mind <objective reality> <our reveries…are significantly and repeatedly shaped by our transactions with the objective world — Marvin Reznikoff> — compare subjective 3a c of a symptom of disease : perceptible to persons other than the affected individual — compare subjective 4c d : involving or deriving from sense perception or experience with actual objects, conditions, or phenomena <objective awareness> <objective data>

    http://www.merriam-webster.com/netdict/objective

    If you want to claim something is 'objective' therefore, it would reasonable to be expected to provide the evidence for your claim.  In this sense, 'objective' has the meaning that you seem to be ascribing to 'absolute'.

    I don't think logic and morality are indeed parallel.  As I understand logic, it doesn't mean much more than the application of 'reason'.  A pre-supposition of logic is needed for their to be any communication.  An axiom is acceptable if it can be shown to be necessary.  This works for logic but doesn't work for morality and certainly not for any particular brand of morality.

    Therefore if you want to call any particular behaviour right or wrong, it is quite reasonable to ask for the evidence behind the standard you are suggesting.  If there is no such evidence, then there are no grounds for the 'right/wrong' assessment.

    If a morality cannot be shown to be supported by objective evidence, then it can only be accepted as subjective - a product only of individual thought.  If it is subjective then it must also be arbitrary.

    Your use of 'privilege' also suggests that your thinking remains circular.  How can you decide what a 'privilege' is without knowing what is good for people?  If you know what is good for people then you already have your morality and you have in fact assumed it in your definition.

    The default is that there is just lots of human behaviour.  This much we can observe.  The classification of this behaviour into right/wrong, good/bad, better/worse, privilege/disadvantage needs some kind of evidential support.  If there is no such support then there is no morality.

    I also disagree with your parallel between the scientific method and morality.  Morality is not, by definition, a means to an end - it is simply the classification of human behaviour.   That classification is dependent on knowing whether an 'end' exists at all.  By claiming that 'morality is the means of managing human interaction in social groups' you are again assuming your conclusion - for you will therefore use this social element to classify the behaviour you observe.  The 'end' you assume does not exist in reality - it is subjectively (and arbitrarily) chosen by you.  Lots of people may happen to like it as well but that makes it no more objective than God would be in the absence of any evidence to support his existence.

    And of course, there are an infinite number of possible ends that a person might select.  The greatest total happiness, my happiness, my tribe's happiness, my existence, my country's existence, human existence, earth's existence, my family's reputation, etc.  In the absence of evidence to support any of these as the 'true' end by which all human behaviour should be judged, they are all as subjective and arbitrary as each other.  And of course, each would result in different, and conflicting moral assessments of particular human behaviour.

    I find it interesting to note that even in your response you have identified several possible contradictory ends.  Here they are:

    Quote from: Zebedee
    one to manage the interaction of humans (or indeed other animals) in a society/group

    Quote from: Zebedee
    Both morality .... are essential for the survival of humanity

    Quote from: Zebedee
    morality is fundamentally the means by which we attempt to preserve society and the people in it

    Quote from: Zebedee
    given that morality is the means by which humans attempt to best manage their society and protect the individuals in it

    Quote from: Zebedee
    It is the same with morality. It is something with practical application, and the very objective of it, just like with empirical inquiry, is to achieve some necessary end in the real world

    Quote from: Zebedee
    Morality is to be applied in the  real world to protect the individuals in it as that is the universal purpose of morality in the first place

    Quote from: Zebedee
    The system that I advocate is simply one which seeks to place all people on the same level and give no one any special, arbitrary privilege


    Within these I see several potential conflicts between the needs of individuals and their society, conflicts between the needs of a society and humanity as a whole, conflicts between the needs of humanity and other living beings, conflicts between managing society and preserving it, conflicts between equality (all people on the same level) and preservation, etc... With all these potential conflicts, how could you possibly hope to be consistent?  How do you decide on the hierarchy between these ends?

    And this is the problem.  Because there is no evidence, possible 'ends' pop up left, right and centre according to what 'feels' right.  There is no rational difference between this approach and the 'prophet' who claims a revelation from God that certain behaviour is right and others wrong.  In neither case is there evidence that the claims are true.

    In all this, the claims of the nihilist seem to be the most consistent.  If people desire consistency, I see no reason why they won't end up here rather than anywhere else.  The fact that the nihilist can't actually live like one is no less consistent than the person who says they require evidence to believe something and then claims a subjective preference as being universal.

    If, as you say, some kind of moral assessment is intrinsic in humans then that just makes us a poor, deluded species destined to live as hypocrites.  The claim that morality is 'necessary' is again assuming the conclusion for the question must be asked 'necessary for what?'.  The answer to that demonstrates that you are already assuming a particular end and that this assumption is again not grounded in reality.

    And if it really is necessary and there really is a tendency for people to be consistent and there really is a morality that is most consistent then there is no need to think about it at all - it will just happen!  Maybe it has already?

    In this regard I think you contradict yourself.  You claim both that morality is intrinsic to humans and that it is not an intrinsic part of the universe.  How can these both be true?

    Cheers,
    sparky
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #79 - June 06, 2010, 11:13 AM

    That last question is trivial. It is intrinsic to humans because, on balance, it leads to better survival rates for a social primate. It is not necessarily intrinsic to the universe itself any more than the angler fish survival strategy or the survival strategy of any other species.

    Devious, treacherous, murderous, neanderthal, sub-human of the West. bunny
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #80 - June 06, 2010, 11:59 AM

    Quote from: osmanthus
    That last question is trivial. It is intrinsic to humans because, on balance, it leads to better survival rates for a social primate. It is not necessarily intrinsic to the universe itself any more than the angler fish survival strategy or the survival strategy of any other species.


    So you think it is intrinsic to the universe - the result of the survival strategy for the human species.  Which would suggest that the true morality is that which produces the survival of an individual's genes and this can be discovered by evidence.

    I thought Zebedee was saying something else.
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #81 - June 09, 2010, 12:07 AM

    Zebedee,

    Thanks for the long response and my apologies also for the delay.

    In terms of definitions, I don't really follow your use of 'objective'.  In the context of discussions about morality, it is normally used to mean something that exists independently of individual thought and is often contrasted with 'subjective' meaning something that only exists in individual thought.

    As in:

    Main Entry: 1ob·jec·tive
    Pronunciation: \əb-ˈjek-tiv, äb-\
    Function: adjective
    Date: 1647

    1 a : relating to or existing as an object of thought without consideration of independent existence —used chiefly in medieval philosophy b : of, relating to, or being an object, phenomenon, or condition in the realm of sensible experience independent of individual thought and perceptible by all observers: having reality independent of the mind <objective reality> <our reveries…are significantly and repeatedly shaped by our transactions with the objective world — Marvin Reznikoff> — compare subjective 3a c of a symptom of disease : perceptible to persons other than the affected individual — compare subjective 4c d : involving or deriving from sense perception or experience with actual objects, conditions, or phenomena <objective awareness> <objective data>

    http://www.merriam-webster.com/netdict/objective

    If you want to claim something is 'objective' therefore, it would reasonable to be expected to provide the evidence for your claim.  In this sense, 'objective' has the meaning that you seem to be ascribing to 'absolute'.


    When I say 'objective morality,' I mean a morality that's universally applicable and consistent and that is not based upon arbitrary and relative assertions, presuppositions, etc.

    Dictionary.com

    ob·jec·tive  [uhb-jek-tiv]
    –adjective
    5.
    not influenced by personal feelings, interpretations, or prejudice; based on facts; unbiased: an objective opinion.


    I don't believe in a morality that's made out of physical material or that's an actual part of the universe. That is, the kind of morality that you could observe empirically.

    In fact, I don't know of any philosophical school that would look at morality, and justification and so forth, from such a bizarre perspective. Could it be that your wholesale rejection of morality is predicated upon a fundamental misunderstanding of what morality actually is?

    I don't think logic and morality are indeed parallel.  As I understand logic, it doesn't mean much more than the application of 'reason'.  A pre-supposition of logic is needed for their to be any communication.  An axiom is acceptable if it can be shown to be necessary.  This works for logic but doesn't work for morality and certainly not for any particular brand of morality.

    Therefore if you want to call any particular behaviour right or wrong, it is quite reasonable to ask for the evidence behind the standard you are suggesting.  If there is no such evidence, then there are no grounds for the 'right/wrong' assessment.


    Of course they're not parallel. But the application of logic, as well as moral ideas, is conceptual. Both are, potentially, completely consistent and have practical application in the real world.

    And you say that "an axiom is acceptable if it can be shown to be necessary." Well, as previously demonstrated, given both the necessity of morality and the absurdity and inapplicability of arbitrary morals, I assert that certain axioms of morality are, in fact, necessary. Such as the inability to fabricate arbitrary moral injunctions and the like.

    As I explained, the moral sense is something that is intrinsic to humans. My particular understanding of morality is derived partly from human psychology as regards to moral sentiments.

    Take, for example, a universally understood moral notion; that a person may not commit an infraction against another unless it's as retribution. Regardless of the specifics of what exactly constitutes an 'infraction;' I try to make my understanding of morality both consistent philosophically, as well as with intrinsic human moral concepts, such as the 'non-aggression principle.'

    Since there are moral universals and since such moral imperatives are not subjective or decided upon by any individual, it is therefore necessary to apply the requisite moral axioms that enable these fundamental moral imperatives (like the non-aggression principle) to be realised.

    And of course, any moral premise that precludes the realisation of the universal moral imperatives can be freely jettisoned as a detrimental injunction.

    So I would say that morality too can have necessary axioms upon which it is founded and which are consistent philosophically as well as with the intuitive human understanding of morality.

    Just don't take me to mean here that I'm saying human intuition, particularly by itself, should be used to decide what the necessary moral axioms are. I'm simply saying that humans still have some innate knowledge (however simplistic it may be, in some cases) of morality, and this is as a result of the intrinsic moral sense that humans have.

    This intrinsic understanding, insofar as it's not simply subjective and philosophically inconsistent, is itself consistent with an objective system of ethics. It is part of such a system, just as the innate human need for morality itself is part of it.

    So, in summary, since there are necessary imperatives of morality and since these are not decided upon by individual humans on a whim, it is therefore necessary to adopt only those axioms which enable the moral imperatives to be realised. The alternative is an unworkable and inconsistent system of ethics, which itself is contradictory to human moral intuition, as well as the system itself and is therefore ineffective for such reasons, failing to adequately fulfill the very purpose of morality in the first place.

    You bring up evidence yet again. I have to ask therefore, what kind of evidence is it that you would find acceptable? Maybe the fact that such a moral understanding is a human universal, so human psychology? Its own philosophical validity and consistency, or perhaps its effective practical application? What kind of evidence do you mean?

    If a morality cannot be shown to be supported by objective evidence, then it can only be accepted as subjective - a product only of individual thought.  If it is subjective then it must also be arbitrary.

    Your use of 'privilege' also suggests that your thinking remains circular. How can you decide what a 'privilege' is without knowing what is good for people?  If you know what is good for people then you already have your morality and you have in fact assumed it in your definition.

    The default is that there is just lots of human behaviour.  This much we can observe.  The classification of this behaviour into right/wrong, good/bad, better/worse, privilege/disadvantage needs some kind of evidential support.  If there is no such support then there is no morality.


    Define what evidence would be acceptable to you. Until you do that, your request for evidence cannot be answered.

    Just because I don't explain every minute detail of any concept that I communicate to you does not mean that I'm engaging in circular reason. If you want me to elaborate, I can.

    But a 'privilege' isn't exactly an equivocal philosophical concept. I simply mean a special right that's asserted by a particular individual or party.

    I don't think it's right of you to accuse me of begging the question in this respect as I've already shown you the necessity of a consistent, non-arbitrary morality. Which, of course, you've not refuted.

    I'm not going to write a ton of stuff on it again. Read what I already wrote on the subject and see why I claim that such mere assertions are not valid and supported by the kind of morality that I have tried to outline.

    I also disagree with your parallel between the scientific method and morality.  Morality is not, by definition, a means to an end - it is simply the classification of human behaviour.   That classification is dependent on knowing whether an 'end' exists at all.  By claiming that 'morality is the means of managing human interaction in social groups' you are again assuming your conclusion - for you will therefore use this social element to classify the behaviour you observe.  The 'end' you assume does not exist in reality - it is subjectively (and arbitrarily) chosen by you.  Lots of people may happen to like it as well but that makes it no more objective than God would be in the absence of any evidence to support his existence.


    No, morality is both a means to an end, hence its practical necessity, and a means of classifying human behaviour. Given its practical necessity, it only stands to reason that certain behaviours will have to be grouped into different categories; some being consistent with morality, others not.

    Of course there's an 'end' to morality, hence why it exists in the first place, and hence why it's built in to human nature itself. Nor am I assuming my conclusion. It's really quite obvious that morality pertains to the management of human behaviour. I didn't think that would be a controversial thing to assert.

    I think it's quite clear from human universal moral imperatives and the consistent intuition and philosophy of objective morality, that the objectives of morality are not arbitrarily chosen by particular people at will. You also bring up god's morality. Divine command theory aside, God too would be bound by this morality is it's not something that is decided upon by any individual.

    Rather, it is a morality that is founded upon universally applicable and necessary axioms, and is therefore not chosen by an individual or group at some specific time. In this sense, I liken morality to the scientific method, as the premises governing it that ensure its efficacy are not subjectively decided upon. They are necessary for its efficacy in practical application.

    Again, I've explained the necessity of morality and the ineffective nature of arbitrary morality. I merely assert that there is a universally applicable and effective morality, consistent both with human intuition and itself as an ethical system. Given this, I think our discussion over the matter of the existence of such a morality is concluded. But I suppose you will disagree.  Smiley

    And of course, there are an infinite number of possible ends that a person might select.  The greatest total happiness, my happiness, my tribe's happiness, my existence, my country's existence, human existence, earth's existence, my family's reputation, etc.  In the absence of evidence to support any of these as the 'true' end by which all human behaviour should be judged, they are all as subjective and arbitrary as each other.  And of course, each would result in different, and conflicting moral assessments of particular human behaviour.

    I find it interesting to note that even in your response you have identified several possible contradictory ends.  Here they are:

    Within these I see several potential conflicts between the needs of individuals and their society, conflicts between the needs of a society and humanity as a whole, conflicts between the needs of humanity and other living beings, conflicts between managing society and preserving it, conflicts between equality (all people on the same level) and preservation, etc... With all these potential conflicts, how could you possibly hope to be consistent?  How do you decide on the hierarchy between these ends?


    Yes, there are. But those ends will necessitate contradiction, absurdity, inefficacy, and so on. Of course arbitrary moral ideas exist, that doesn't refute the existence of an objective morality any more than an inconsistent philosophy refutes the existence of a consistent one. And again with the evidence. I've given you my arguments in favour of a specific, universally applicable morality.

    Just because a system has various ends does not mean that they are contradictory to one another. I've read over the list and found nothing that contradicts anything else. If you think differently, then please explain where the contradiction lies, rather than just asserting that it's there.

    As for these conflicts, so what? There always have been and always will be conflicts within society. That does not by any means demonstrate that morality itself will have to be compromised or twisted.

    If you think there's a specific situation where a problem would arise, then let me know, and I'll try to explain how it might be dealt with in accordance with objective morality.

    And this is the problem.  Because there is no evidence, possible 'ends' pop up left, right and centre according to what 'feels' right.  There is no rational difference between this approach and the 'prophet' who claims a revelation from God that certain behaviour is right and others wrong.  In neither case is there evidence that the claims are true.

    In all this, the claims of the nihilist seem to be the most consistent.  If people desire consistency, I see no reason why they won't end up here rather than anywhere else.  The fact that the nihilist can't actually live like one is no less consistent than the person who says they require evidence to believe something and then claims a subjective preference as being universal.

    If, as you say, some kind of moral assessment is intrinsic in humans then that just makes us a poor, deluded species destined to live as hypocrites.  The claim that morality is 'necessary' is again assuming the conclusion for the question must be asked 'necessary for what?'.  The answer to that demonstrates that you are already assuming a particular end and that this assumption is again not grounded in reality.


    As I've mentioned time and time again, objective morality is not predicated upon arbitrary 'feelings.' And you allude again to divine command theory, a philosophical system which is entirely arbitrary and even internally contradictory. The two systems cannot be compared, as I think it's fair to say I've demonstrated quite sufficiently.

    I've dscussed the so-called 'consistency' of moral nihlism. Philosophically, it is neither consistent nor inconsistent as there are no actual premises in it to conflict with each other. It's like a non-scientific theory, or a non-philosophy; it's neither consistent nor inconsistent.

    And of course, the practical and psychological 'consistency' of nihilism, is not, as far as I'm concerned, even possible. As a human you must make moral judgements, and you must act in accordance with one moral standard or another in order to live within society.

    I think I've explained in considerable detail to you the necessity of and  the imperatives of morality. It is necessary even for human survival and it is innate to human psychology. I also see no reason as to why it forces us to live as hypocrites. One can be moral as well as consistent.

    In an absolute sense, morality is not necessary, but it is for humans. Given its necessity for humans, it therefore follows that it must be necessary for particular reasons, which I've explained to you, so I'm not going to do so yet again.

    And if it really is necessary and there really is a tendency for people to be consistent and there really is a morality that is most consistent then there is no need to think about it at all - it will just happen!  Maybe it has already?

    In this regard I think you contradict yourself.  You claim both that morality is intrinsic to humans and that it is not an intrinsic part of the universe.  How can these both be true?

    Cheers,
    sparky


    I don't see why you say that morality will 'just happen.' A lot of important philosophical or scientific truths are only found after a long process of inquiry. I don't see why a system of objective morality would be any different. Especially since it has been corrupted for so long by religious and ideological bias. And even its understanding now, in secular terms, is rather limited. It's understandable, as many people still think of morality as being pretty much exclusively a religious matter.

    Morality is not a physical part of the universe, just like the scientific method and logic. That's obvious.

    Humans are contingent, morality is contingent upon the existence of humans, or other moral agents. Given this contingent nature of morality, it stands to reason that you can't find it, like you would a physical object, as a necessary part of a nihilistic universe.

    I think that question, and a large part of your responses to me, demonstrates that you have a misunderstanding of what the nature of morality actually is.

    But anyway, thanks for asking these important questions. It's actually helped me to put things together and to do some much-needed thinking on the subject  Afro

    Kind regards
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #82 - June 13, 2010, 06:41 PM

    Quote from: Zebedee
    When I say 'objective morality,' I mean a morality that's universally applicable and consistent and that is not based upon arbitrary and relative assertions, presuppositions, etc.

    Dictionary.com

    ob·jec·tive  [uhb-jek-tiv]
    –adjective
    5.
    not influenced by personal feelings, interpretations, or prejudice; based on facts; unbiased: an objective opinion.


    I don't believe in a morality that's made out of physical material or that's an actual part of the universe. That is, the kind of morality that you could observe empirically.

    In fact, I don't know of any philosophical school that would look at morality, and justification and so forth, from such a bizarre perspective. Could it be that your wholesale rejection of morality is predicated upon a fundamental misunderstanding of what morality actually is?


    As I think I said above, unless the morality stems from something that is empirically observable, it can only be subjective and therefore must also be arbitrary.  As far as I can see 'objective' or 'subjective' is pretty much a binary choice here.  If it is subjective, it must be arbitrary for it has no existence outside of your own head.  The various goals for your morality that you described above are very much relative assertions that are no more rationally justified than any others in the list I laid out above.

    An example of an attempt at an 'objective' morality would be objectivism.  The claim here is that a morality (i.e. a classification of good and bad behaviour relative to a particular goal) can be derived from the facts of 'life' and self-interest.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Objectivism_(Ayn_Rand)

    Another might be utilitarianism where the 'true' goal is happiness for the largest number of people.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Utilitarianism

    Whether these achieve their aim of being 'objective' is another matter, but each claims that there is a 'true' moral goal that can be empirically observed and that a 'true' morality can be derived from this.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    Of course they're not parallel. But the application of logic, as well as moral ideas, is conceptual. Both are, potentially, completely consistent and have practical application in the real world.

    And you say that "an axiom is acceptable if it can be shown to be necessary." Well, as previously demonstrated, given both the necessity of morality and the absurdity and inapplicability of arbitrary morals, I assert that certain axioms of morality are, in fact, necessary. Such as the inability to fabricate arbitrary moral injunctions and the like.

    I don't think you have demonstrated that morality is necessary.  It remains unclear to me why it is necessary to classify certain behaviour as right or wrong.  You have simply assumed a particular moral goal and then said therefore morality is necessary.  But as that goal is not grounded in evidence, the resulting morality is no more valid than that which would result from any other arbitrarily selected goal.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    As I explained, the moral sense is something that is intrinsic to humans. My particular understanding of morality is derived partly from human psychology as regards to moral sentiments.

    And as I explained something that is intrinsic can still be a delusion - an accidental by-product of evolution that results in certain subjective impulses that have no particular meaning at all.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    Take, for example, a universally understood moral notion; that a person may not commit an infraction against another unless it's as retribution. Regardless of the specifics of what exactly constitutes an 'infraction;' I try to make my understanding of morality both consistent philosophically, as well as with intrinsic human moral concepts, such as the 'non-aggression principle.'

    And of course, any moral premise that precludes the realisation of the universal moral imperatives can be freely jettisoned as a detrimental injunction.

    So I would say that morality too can have necessary axioms upon which it is founded and which are consistent philosophically as well as with the intuitive human understanding of morality.

    Just don't take me to mean here that I'm saying human intuition, particularly by itself, should be used to decide what the necessary moral axioms are. I'm simply saying that humans still have some innate knowledge (however simplistic it may be, in some cases) of morality, and this is as a result of the intrinsic moral sense that humans have.

    This intrinsic understanding, insofar as it's not simply subjective and philosophically inconsistent, is itself consistent with an objective system of ethics. It is part of such a system, just as the innate human need for morality itself is part of it.


    So, in summary, since there are necessary imperatives of morality and since these are not decided upon by individual humans on a whim, it is therefore necessary to adopt only those axioms which enable the moral imperatives to be realised. The alternative is an unworkable and inconsistent system of ethics, which itself is contradictory to human moral intuition, as well as the system itself and is therefore ineffective for such reasons, failing to adequately fulfill the very purpose of morality in the first place.

    I think it is a dangerous thing to start claiming that particular moral notions are 'universal'.  It's a very difficult thing to prove and, as far as I have seen, there are almost always exceptions to every moral notion you can think of.  It also smacks of an imperial assumption that the way you think is the way everyone thinks.  An example might be tribal cultures in the Pacific Islands where acts of deception are honoured.  Or cultures were surprise attacks on neighbouring tribes are considered good.

    In addition, I don't see how you can simultaneously claim the existence of a true moral goal and adherence to 'intrinsic human moral concepts' (which I will take to be your own conscience).  These will inevitably be in conflict at some points and you will have to either sacrifice consistency or your own conscience.  When you talk about 'universal moral imperative' are you talking about conscience or your particular moral goal?

    As an example, if you were a libertarian you might consider there was nothing immoral about letting your parents languish in an old people's home given that this doesn't actually involve infringing on anyone's rights or freedoms (without a tortuous redefinition of 'rights') but for many caring personally for your elderly parents might be considered an 'intrinsic human moral concept'.

    So in summary,
    1.  There are no 'necessary imperatives of morality'.  As a result any particular goal cannot be accepted as an axiom for a particular morality.  All such goals are subjective and arbitrary.
    2.  At best there seems to be an intrinsic sense that 'something' is right or wrong but no determination as to whether this is an accident or something meaningful can be made without some kind of evidence.
    3.  There is no evidence to support the idea that any particular moral notions are universally held and much evidence that most moral notions have an exception somewhere.
    4.  It is impossible to simultaneously claim adherence to human moral notions (diverse as these are) and a particular moral goal.  One must take precedence in which case the other is irrelevant.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    You bring up evidence yet again. I have to ask therefore, what kind of evidence is it that you would find acceptable? Maybe the fact that such a moral understanding is a human universal, so human psychology? Its own philosophical validity and consistency, or perhaps its effective practical application? What kind of evidence do you mean?

    I'm not sure why this is a difficult question.  My original claim was that right and wrong don't exist and that there are only things that you like and don't like.  I'm looking for some reason to believe that this isn't true.  I.e. something to show me that right and wrong is a characteristic of the real world and not something just imagined by people.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    Just because I don't explain every minute detail of any concept that I communicate to you does not mean that I'm engaging in circular reason. If you want me to elaborate, I can.

    But a 'privilege' isn't exactly an equivocal philosophical concept. I simply mean a special right that's asserted by a particular individual or party.

    And I think I explained before why it is circular to use the concept of a 'right' in the definition of what moral.  You cannot know whether a right exists without first knowing what is right or wrong.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    I don't think it's right of you to accuse me of begging the question in this respect as I've already shown you the necessity of a consistent, non-arbitrary morality. Which, of course, you've not refuted.

    I'm not going to write a ton of stuff on it again. Read what I already wrote on the subject and see why I claim that such mere assertions are not valid and supported by the kind of morality that I have tried to outline.

    I have read what you have written and I don't think you have shown this necessity at all.  You have assumed it within your definition of morality which is indeed begging the question.  Pointing this out constitutes my refutation.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    No, morality is both a means to an end, hence its practical necessity, and a means of classifying human behaviour. Given its practical necessity, it only stands to reason that certain behaviours will have to be grouped into different categories; some being consistent with morality, others not.

    'Practical necessity for what'?  You might say 'to survive' (or something else) and I would say 'don't I have a choice whether to survive or not, why should I accept your particular behavioural goal?'.  And that's pretty much it.  The reality of choice (which is why the question of morality arises at all) renders all possible human goals to the realm of preference.  Of course, there may be some behaviour that is not chosen - i.e. is reflexive - but as long as you accept some choice exists then it is impossible to say without evidence that any goal is the 'true' one.

    Morality is only a classification of human behaviour and not a means to any particular end.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    Of course there's an 'end' to morality, hence why it exists in the first place, and hence why it's built in to human nature itself. Nor am I assuming my conclusion. It's really quite obvious that morality pertains to the management of human behaviour. I didn't think that would be a controversial thing to assert.

    But it is and I have given you the reason.  There are hundreds of possible humanly-imagined, arbitrarily selected 'ends' to morality among which 'no-end' is a distinct possibility.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    I think it's quite clear from human universal moral imperatives and the consistent intuition and philosophy of objective morality, that the objectives of morality are not arbitrarily chosen by particular people at will. You also bring up god's morality. Divine command theory aside, God too would be bound by this morality is it's not something that is decided upon by any individual.

    As described above there are no universal moral imperatives and the one you have selected is indeed arbitrary chosen by you.  I bring up God only to illustrate the question of evidence to determine whether something is imagined or real.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    Rather, it is a morality that is founded upon universally applicable and necessary axioms, and is therefore not chosen by an individual or group at some specific time. In this sense, I liken morality to the scientific method, as the premises governing it that ensure its efficacy are not subjectively decided upon. They are necessary for its efficacy in practical application.

    Unfortunately your comparison works in the wrong way.  The scientific method has indeed been subjectively decided upon by a particular group (scientists) who happen to agree with the particular end that the premises are means to achieve.  As a result, they regularly reject work by others that do not fit with their premises.  Your morality might indeed work in much the same way but it still fail to be 'objective' and 'universal'.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    Again, I've explained the necessity of morality and the ineffective nature of arbitrary morality. I merely assert that there is a universally applicable and effective morality, consistent both with human intuition and itself as an ethical system. Given this, I think our discussion over the matter of the existence of such a morality is concluded. But I suppose you will disagree.

    Indeedy.

    Perhaps a counter example will illustrate.
    1.  All humans have a sense of morality.
    2.  It is intrinsic in humans to desire honour.  A persons name and reputation outlive him and so maximising this is the necessary goal of a person's life.
    3.  Behaviour that maximises your reputation is good, behaviour that diminishes it is bad.
    4.  The opportunity to maximise your reputation is available to all humans and so the resulting morality is universal and objective (non-arbitrary)
    5.  Behaviour can be consistently ordered towards this goal.
    6.  Intrinsic moral notions concur with this concept of morality.

    Why is this morality and less consistent, effective, universal and objective than yours?

    Quote from: Zebedee
    Yes, there are. But those ends will necessitate contradiction, absurdity, inefficacy, and so on. Of course arbitrary moral ideas exist, that doesn't refute the existence of an objective morality any more than an inconsistent philosophy refutes the existence of a consistent one. And again with the evidence. I've given you my arguments in favour of a specific, universally applicable morality.

    Just because a system has various ends does not mean that they are contradictory to one another. I've read over the list and found nothing that contradicts anything else. If you think differently, then please explain where the contradiction lies, rather than just asserting that it's there.

    As for these conflicts, so what? There always have been and always will be conflicts within society. That does not by any means demonstrate that morality itself will have to be compromised or twisted.

    If you think there's a specific situation where a problem would arise, then let me know, and I'll try to explain how it might be dealt with in accordance with objective morality.

    The point was 'logical conflicts' between the ends you identified.  My last paragraph was selecting potential conflicts between the ends that you had identified.

    If a system has various ends then you need a hierarchy of those ends to avoid a contradiction.  That hierarchy also needs to meet your criteria of being 'non-arbitrary'. 

    As an example, if one society endangers the survival of humanity you will need to choose between preserving that society and ensuring the survival of humanity.
    Quote from: Zebedee
    As I've mentioned time and time again, objective morality is not predicated upon arbitrary 'feelings.'  And you allude again to divine command theory, a philosophical system which is entirely arbitrary and even internally contradictory. The two systems cannot be compared, as I think it's fair to say I've demonstrated quite sufficiently.

    Because your 'objective' morality is not actually objective (i.e. existing in reality) then it can only be subjective and therefore contingent on your 'feelings' or 'imagination' if you prefer.  Therefore it is entirely indistinguishable from a morality derived from the 'prophet' who, I might add, needs only the consistency that all the commands come from him.  He will reveal his own hierarchy to resolve 'apparent' contradictions as and when needed.

    The two 'systems' can completely be compared.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    I've dscussed the so-called 'consistency' of moral nihlism. Philosophically, it is neither consistent nor inconsistent as there are no actual premises in it to conflict with each other. It's like a non-scientific theory, or a non-philosophy; it's neither consistent nor inconsistent.

    Or atheism?
    Quote from: Zebedee
    And of course, the practical and psychological 'consistency' of nihilism, is not, as far as I'm concerned, even possible. As a human you must make moral judgements, and you must act in accordance with one moral standard or another in order to live within society.

    I think I've explained in considerable detail to you the necessity of and  the imperatives of morality. It is necessary even for human survival and it is innate to human psychology. I also see no reason as to why it forces us to live as hypocrites. One can be moral as well as consistent.

    In an absolute sense, morality is not necessary, but it is for humans. Given its necessity for humans, it therefore follows that it must be necessary for particular reasons, which I've explained to you, so I'm not going to do so yet again.

    1.  Lots of people with different moral standards live in society.  Some get punished by the wider group for their behaviour, some don't.  There is nothing about 'society' that renders any morality 'necessary'.
    2.  I've already said that it is quite possible for the nihilist to be rationally correct and behaviourally hypocritical.  The fact that you don't happen to like this outcome for yourself does nothing to diminish the possibility that the nihilist is correct.
    3.  If there is no true 'morality' then there can be no 'being moral'.  You order your behaviour according to your own subjectively preferred principles.  The hypocrisy would be in claiming and behaving as if something was true when it really isn't.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    Humans are contingent, morality is contingent upon the existence of humans, or other moral agents. Given this contingent nature of morality, it stands to reason that you can't find it, like you would a physical object, as a necessary part of a nihilistic universe.

    I think that question, and a large part of your responses to me, demonstrates that you have a misunderstanding of what the nature of morality actually is.

    Human behaviour is contingent on humans and is entirely discoverable.  The classification of that behaviour into right and wrong, good and bad, is entirely subjective, conceptually unnecessary, practically unnecessary and fundamentally delusional.  Human imagination is capable of lots of things, that is no reason to order your life by any particular fantasy.  If you can't find it, don't believe in it.

    Cheers,
    sparky
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #83 - June 25, 2010, 11:00 PM

    As I think I said above, unless the morality stems from something that is empirically observable, it can only be subjective and therefore must also be arbitrary...


    You've already conceded that something does not have to be empirically verifiable in order to be valid, applicable or the like; e.g., logic.

    Your persistence in asking for physical evidence for the existence of morality is rather nonsensical. Why don't you think scientists have been using their microscropes in an attempt to find and define what objective morality is? Well, obviously, scientists don't do that because they realise that any attempt to find morality through such a means is doomed to failure, because morality, like mathematics and logic, is not some physical, material phenomenon. It is something else, in a different field altogether.

    I'm certainly not going to defend other moral systems that people have tried to develop. Their flaws and strengths are another discussion. But with regards to so-called 'Objectivism,' I find it remarkable when reading the writings of its proponents just how incredibly un-objective they are.

    Whether these achieve their aim of being 'objective' is another matter, but each claims that there is a 'true' moral goal that can be empirically observed and that a 'true' morality can be derived from this.

    I don't think you have demonstrated that morality is necessary...

    And as I explained something that is intrinsic can still be a delusion - an accidental by-product of evolution that results in certain subjective impulses that have no particular meaning at all.

    I think it is a dangerous thing to start claiming that particular moral notions are 'universal'.  It's a very difficult thing to prove and, as far as I have seen, there are almost always exceptions to every moral notion you can think of.  It also smacks of an imperial assumption that the way you think is the way everyone thinks.  An example might be tribal cultures in the Pacific Islands where acts of deception are honoured.  Or cultures were surprise attacks on neighbouring tribes are considered good.


    Like I said, the existence of flawed moral systems does not, in any way, refute the existence of a genuine objective morality.

    I haven't demonstrated the necessity of morality? Did you not even concede that idea yourself when you wrote this:

    'The fact that the nihilist can't actually live like one...'?

    It seems that you thereby conceded that it is a fact that a nihilist can't actually live like one, and therefore that morality is necessary, not optional.

    But in any case, I don't think I need to argue too much about the necessity of morality. The state of any society that simply did as it pleased would be complete chaos. Hence why a morality is some kind is, in fact, universal to human societies.

    As for moral goals. Humans need to survive. Survival requires an orderly and structured society. Therefore, the morality that ensures the most auspicious and orderly society is the best one, in line with moral imperatives.

    There's nothing arbitrary about this. It's simply a morality that is founded upon necessity. It's not something haphazardly cooked-up in some abstract way to regulate random and purposeless parts of people's lives. Rather, it's a system that seeks to regulate social behaviour in order to ensure an orderly society, as per the survival necessity.

    One may well say that absolutely everything is ultimately illusory and contingent. However, as long as we humans and our contingent existence are, then so too shall those things that accompany our contingent existence exist, e.g., emotion, philosophy, science, morality, etc.

    I think it is a dangerous thing to start claiming that particular moral notions are 'universal'.  It's a very difficult thing to prove and, as far as I have seen, there are almost always exceptions to every moral notion you can think of.  It also smacks of an imperial assumption that the way you think is the way everyone thinks.  An example might be tribal cultures in the Pacific Islands where acts of deception are honoured.  Or cultures were surprise attacks on neighbouring tribes are considered good.


    Dangerous? Dangerous how? What's wrong with dangerous assertions or imperialism from a nihilistic perspective?

    Is this your nihlistic consistency showing through? You claim that there is no morality yet you make moral judgements about things like imperialism?

    And again, other cultures do indeed have deviant morals. But once again, it says nothing about whether an objective morality exists or is possible.

    In addition, I don't see how you can simultaneously claim the existence of a true moral goal and adherence to 'intrinsic human moral concepts' (which I will take to be your own conscience).  These will inevitably be in conflict at some points and you will have to either sacrifice consistency or your own conscience.  When you talk about 'universal moral imperative' are you talking about conscience or your particular moral goal?


    Yes. The moral goal is the practical 'aim' of morality and the innate moral concepts are the conscience that recognises moral ideas.

    I, of course, never said that conscience was infallible. It, like any other kind of intuition, is prone to error. Just like with mathematics, we will, at times, have to step back and debate and think about things before they are clear and understood to us.

    Like I stated, the moral imperative is the moral goal, not the subjective recognition of the moral goal, that is, conscience.

    As an example, if you were a libertarian you might consider there was nothing immoral about letting your parents languish in an old people's home given that this doesn't actually involve infringing on anyone's rights or freedoms (without a tortuous redefinition of 'rights') but for many caring personally for your elderly parents might be considered an 'intrinsic human moral concept'.


    Yes, but this pertains to virtue ethics, which is not what I'm talking about now. To keep it simple, I'd like to stick to deontological ethics for the time being.

    So in summary,
    1.  There are no 'necessary imperatives of morality'.  As a result any particular goal cannot be accepted as an axiom for a particular morality.  All such goals are subjective and arbitrary.
    2.  At best there seems to be an intrinsic sense that 'something' is right or wrong but no determination as to whether this is an accident or something meaningful can be made without some kind of evidence.
    3.  There is no evidence to support the idea that any particular moral notions are universally held and much evidence that most moral notions have an exception somewhere.
    4.  It is impossible to simultaneously claim adherence to human moral notions (diverse as these are) and a particular moral goal.  One must take precedence in which case the other is irrelevant.


    1. I think the necessity of morality shows that moral goals are not arbitrary and in fact exist to fulfill a specific requisite end. Hence the practical need for morality. If morality were something that human society could exist without, then I'd be more inclined to believe that there are no goals of morality, but that's not the case.

    2. I am maintaining that there is a means to determine right from wrong.

    3. The odd exception hardly refutes the existence of a general rule of morality. The fact is that there are human universals that can be found, even within truly immoral societies.

    4. Conscience is not irrelevant. It simply, like all human intuitions, some times needs to be developed and sharpened, like any other fallible human faculty.

    I'm not sure why this is a difficult question.  My original claim was that right and wrong don't exist and that there are only things that you like and don't like.  I'm looking for some reason to believe that this isn't true.  I.e. something to show me that right and wrong is a characteristic of the real world and not something just imagined by people.

    And I think I explained before why it is circular to use the concept of a 'right' in the definition of what moral.  You cannot know whether a right exists without first knowing what is right or wrong.

    I have read what you have written and I don't think you have shown this necessity at all.  You have assumed it within your definition of morality which is indeed begging the question.  Pointing this out constitutes my refutation.

    'Practical necessity for what'?  You might say 'to survive' (or something else) and I would say 'don't I have a choice whether to survive or not, why should I accept your particular behavioural goal?'.  And that's pretty much it.  The reality of choice (which is why the question of morality arises at all) renders all possible human goals to the realm of preference.  Of course, there may be some behaviour that is not chosen - i.e. is reflexive - but as long as you accept some choice exists then it is impossible to say without evidence that any goal is the 'true' one.


    I think I've discussed this matter of mere preference enough. I've said and explained why simply saying that it's a matter of like/dislike or arbitrary preference is simplistic and mistaken. If you don't accept my arguments, that's up to you.

    Morality is only a classification of human behaviour and not a means to any particular end.

    But it is and I have given you the reason.  There are hundreds of possible humanly-imagined, arbitrarily selected 'ends' to morality among which 'no-end' is a distinct possibility.

    As described above there are no universal moral imperatives and the one you have selected is indeed arbitrary chosen by you.  I bring up God only to illustrate the question of evidence to determine whether something is imagined or real.


    Morality requires the classification of certain forms of behaviour. It is not the mere purposeless process of doing so. Why would people contrive such a completely pointless system of merely arbitrarily deciding what certain types of behaviour are?

    The reason, I believe, that you don't want to accept that morality is a means to an end is because of the necessary consequence of accepting that. That is, if morality has a purpose or purposes, then it is not something the purpose or basis of which can be arbitrarily decided upon. Its premises must aim towards a particular goal and so therefore, can't be arbitrary.

    But of course, you yourself seemed to concede that it is not practically possible for you to live as a nihilist. The other parts of your post alluded to your own moral intuition, which leads me to believe that you're even psychologically incapable of truly being a nihilist.

    Unfortunately your comparison works in the wrong way.  The scientific method has indeed been subjectively decided upon by a particular group (scientists) who happen to agree with the particular end that the premises are means to achieve.  As a result, they regularly reject work by others that do not fit with their premises.  Your morality might indeed work in much the same way but it still fail to be 'objective' and 'universal'.
    Indeedy.


    The scientific method has a specific end: to discern what is actually the case in the physical world. Therefore, certain notions, if applied, will be consistent with this end and others will not. Those that are not consistent with it will not become part of the system of the scientific method. It's much the same for morality.

    Of course, this has nothing to do with mere subjective consenting to the consistency of these ideas with the practical end. People agree on these things on a subjective level, but subjective agreement cannot and does not define what premises are consistent with the end goal.

    If only one person accepted the premises which were consistent with the scientific method, the opinions of everyone else would not in any way change the fact that only that one persons understanding is the one that is consistent with the end goal of the scientific method. The erroneous understandings would fail to produce the desired end, and the correct one would produce the desired end. Mere subjective opinion and preference is irrelevant.

    And you say that this is how my concept of morality works! Well then, now that I've shown you that personal preference is, in fact, not the deciding factor, are you willing to concede the possibility of an objective morality that functions similarly?

    And of course. But that is only because your definitions of 'objective' and 'absolute' refer to an actual physical component of the universe. I'm advocating no such thing.

    Perhaps a counter example will illustrate.
    1.  All humans have a sense of morality.
    2.  It is intrinsic in humans to desire honour.  A persons name and reputation outlive him and so maximising this is the necessary goal of a person's life.
    3.  Behaviour that maximises your reputation is good, behaviour that diminishes it is bad.
    4.  The opportunity to maximise your reputation is available to all humans and so the resulting morality is universal and objective (non-arbitrary)
    5.  Behaviour can be consistently ordered towards this goal.
    6.  Intrinsic moral notions concur with this concept of morality.

    Why is this morality and less consistent, effective, universal and objective than yours?

    The point was 'logical conflicts' between the ends you identified.  My last paragraph was selecting potential conflicts between the ends that you had identified.


    It may not be less consistent! It doesn't disprove the objectivity of the morality that I advocate by any means. It seems, however, to pertain more to virtue ethics, and that's not what I'm discussing.

    Yes. And you failed to produce an example of a genuine logical inconsistency, as far as I could tell. You only seemed to say that such things were possible. I didn't see any example though.

    If a system has various ends then you need a hierarchy of those ends to avoid a contradiction.  That hierarchy also needs to meet your criteria of being 'non-arbitrary'.

    As an example, if one society endangers the survival of humanity you will need to choose between preserving that society and ensuring the survival of humanity.Because your 'objective' morality is not actually objective (i.e. existing in reality) then it can only be subjective and therefore contingent on your 'feelings' or 'imagination' if you prefer.  Therefore it is entirely indistinguishable from a morality derived from the 'prophet' who, I might add, needs only the consistency that all the commands come from him.  He will reveal his own hierarchy to resolve 'apparent' contradictions as and when needed.


    Yes. As for a hierarchy: any infraction committed against a person should be repaid in like value. Stealing a car is more severe than stealing a six pack as stealing the car constitutes a larger, unjustified confiscation of a person's property.

    Or if you're going to say something like 'Well, what if you had to kill one person or kill 1,000?' Aside from the fact that such a situation is a completely fantastic ad hoc, I'll explain what I think about such things.

    Killing an innocent person is still wrong, even if it's to save 1,000. And, of course, it's immoral to let 1,000 people die or to kill them when you may save them, due to complicity, or responsibility. Of course, both are immoral. It's a situation in which you are damned both ways, but due to the far-greater severity of taking 1,000 lives, you would be doing less moral harm by only killing one.

    Or atheism?

    1.  Lots of people with different moral standards live in society.  Some get punished by the wider group for their behaviour, some don't.  There is nothing about 'society' that renders any morality 'necessary'.
    2.  I've already said that it is quite possible for the nihilist to be rationally correct and behaviourally hypocritical.  The fact that you don't happen to like this outcome for yourself does nothing to diminish the possibility that the nihilist is correct.
    3.  If there is no true 'morality' then there can be no 'being moral'.  You order your behaviour according to your own subjectively preferred principles.  The hypocrisy would be in claiming and behaving as if something was true when it really isn't.

    Human behaviour is contingent on humans and is entirely discoverable.  The classification of that behaviour into right and wrong, good and bad, is entirely subjective, conceptually unnecessary, practically unnecessary and fundamentally delusional.  Human imagination is capable of lots of things, that is no reason to order your life by any particular fantasy.  If you can't find it, don't believe in it.

    Cheers,
    sparky


    What about atheism?

    1. I've talked about that to death. I would just like to say however that I regard my morality as not being limited to a crude, atavistic morality that's fossilised like some immensely crude form of the scientific method.

    Rather, I see morality as something that's developed gradually and that becomes gradually better and more sophisticated, remaining consistent with the original goals.

    2. Of course the nihilist can be correct! Exactly, what I arbitrarily want isn't the deciding factor.

    But, why would the nihlist be 'behaviourally hypocritical'? I would wager, because of the practical and psychological necessity of morality. People don't have a choice as to whether they live by morality in a practical sense, and so I don't see morality as something that's optional or based on nothing more than the arbitrary preferences of any given individual.

    3. Yup. But I believe that morality is quite consistent with human nature and rationality. I see living by morality as a characterisitic of being a human, and so therefore, I don't see it as being hypocritical to live according to it in the slightest.

    And If I haven't convinced you of the error of the thinking in your last paragraph by now (assuming that you're wrong in your views) then I don't think I ever will. And so, I'd now like to discontinue this exchange, as it's long since become repetetive.

    You can respond and the like, and I'll read any response. But I'm not gonna write a ton of stuff on this subject explaining every little detail. It's time-consuming and I'm lazy.

    But thanks for the civil discussion Afro Like I said, it made me think a lot about the stuff that I'd been meaning to sort out in my head pertaining to all this.
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #84 - June 25, 2010, 11:48 PM

    Moved over from Future of religion thread:

    Quote
    'And this interpretation of 'best' is.... a personal opinion.'

    as are all. The trick is to move the consensus  to yours.

    What is your interpretation of 'best', and why?

    Quote
    Then surely you can also see how pointless it is to argue that one set of moral principles is 'better' than another?  


    No, not anymore than arguing which system of government is better, or which tax code would be better.  It is important to building a society that I think is better.

    Quote
    If there is no good, there can be no comparing of one set of morals to another to see which is 'better'.


    Which one I think is better. Do you vote? Yes? You do the same thing.
    If you think your's is better, make your case, and convince people (without appeals to false authority, like vengful deities that dont exist).

    Quote
    Why should it matter how recent the concept is?

     

    Because that shows that it is completely possible for a society to develop morals without a god dictating them, which you claimed it wasnt.

    Quote
    You are again implying some kind of universal goal against which something can be determined as 'necessary'.  What would that be?


    For me? I'd say a society that values things like personal freedom, freedom of thought, with development of art and science, that both provides for the greater comfort of all people with in that soceity.
    Basically: life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness
    If you disagree, make your case.
    Also, long term, with a major focus on developing better naturalistic understanding of the universe, where humanity may evolve into something even better.....and maybe even colonize the galaxy or travel to other dimensions or who knows what will be in a million years. Humanity will and can make its own purpose...even after it evolves past being humanity.  Again, I'm not a nihlist.
    If you disagree with this, or think it is 'bad',  make your case

    Quote
    Claiming, without foundation, based on your personal preferences, is exactly what you are doing.  Which, according to you, is just what the prophet does.


    But not basing it on lies.
    'I' think lying is bad. If you disagree, make the case that lying is good. Also, if they are lies, their claim of 'moral truth' fails.
    I'm sure you understand the difference.
    Claiming that I think such and such is good because BuggahBuggah told me so would be "Claiming, without foundation", or with no foundation except a logical fallacy of appeal to authority.....where the authority itself is false.

    Quote
    So 'good' = 'survival'?  Is that a universal truth now?


    Well, most people do find being destroyed to be 'bad'.
    Quote

    And who is the 'we' here?  Are these universal?


    Humans in general. If you do not think those things are virtues? Explain why/why not?

    Quote
    It seems to me that you are simply assuming certain behaviours that you happen to like as 'moral'.  Of course, this doesn't constitute a real argument.


    It is the only argument. I dont believe in god...what other argument is there. I'm also not 'assuming' anything, I've thought, and continue to think them out.

    Quote
    If there is no 'true' morality then any classification of behaviour into good and bad is simply a figment of your imagination.  Full stop.

    That is like saying any classification of food into healthy and unhealthy is a figment of my imagination.

    Quote
    I love how quickly such arguments develop into the 'we' and 'our' as if everyone can simply be co-opted into adopting your particular behavioural preferences.


    Well, they can, and are. Do you think slavery is ok? Make your case that it is ok. I'll make the case it isnt. We would both be co-opteding people into adopting your particular behavioural preferences.

    Quote
    But of course, if there is no true morality, that can be the only approach to moral discussion for there is no rational argument that can be advanced.
    There is no true morality, so there is no 'progress' and there is no 'development' which of course imply some kind of true 'goal' - which you have already said does not exist.


    We make that goal ourselves.
    Let me ask you something...Do you have any goal in life or hope for the future other than going to heaven?
    If not, do you go to the doctor when you get sick? If you had cancer, would you seek treatment? Why? It would be a blessing sending you to heaven. Why arent you a monk or something? Why be engaged in secular society at all? Any actions not related to going to heaven is then pointless.
    Quote
    How can you have a 'false' morality when there is no 'true' morality to compare it with?

     

    By 'False' I mean insincere or unnatural.
    Quote
    That people, in all time and in all places, have made up rules for themselves is obvious.  This does nothing to disprove the possible existence of a 'true' set of rules or principles that might apply to all people, everywhere and have its origin with God.


    It also doesnt disprove Unicorns who live on the moon and need us to send them our skittles. But it does disprove you initial assurtation, that 'all morals come from god'.

    Hell, even if I concede that there is a god, it doesnt work. If there is such a god, what makes his morals 'true'...if they disagree with mine?
    What if god's morals (which god?) conflict with my reason or empathy? Take hell as example. For many people this has even been a concept that has actually lead to unbelief, as it conflicts with their reason and empathy. If there even really was a god I would find such a god 'immoral', by my standards (his saving grace is his non existence). Because of this, even many christian denominations have dropped the whole hell thing. Many of them certainly stopped focusing and yelling about it, because they know this turns people off....Humanistic Morals dictating to the religious....something that should be impossible if we were to think 'morals come from god' and nowhere else.
    Furthermore, if 'god's morals' conflict with my own, then 'god's morals' are not universal, as you claimed.
    Quote
    You make up something.  Other people make up something else.  You prefer what you make up and so call the other people names to make them feel bad about what they make up.
    You can 'think and reason' as much as you like.  A fantasy is still a fantasy, no matter how complex and involved it is.


    Uhm, I'm not sure you understand what 'fantasy' means, especially If you are insiting on everything being based on the dictates of an unknown nonexistent supernatural entity that seems to talk to certain people (ie. people you agree with) and doesnt talk to other people (ei. people you dont agree with)  
    Quote
    And sadly, 'better' has ended up in the garbage too.


    What does this even mean?

    In order for your argument even to have a starting point, you need to prove that god even exists, then you need to prove he said so-and-so, then you still have to convince me that this god is 'moral'. Since even the existencec of this so-called god never even been done, the argument doesnt even get off the ground. Tell me, which 'god' devivers the 'universal morality', and what is it? Does anyone know? If not everyone agrees with it, how is it universal?

    In some ways I'm not sure if you are making the argument for Plato's 'Noble Lie' or if you actually believe this. In which case any moral argument you make is predicated on proving that said moral  is commanded and defined by a god who is the supreme moral definer.  


    To Be honest,
    Since I dont believe there is a universal absolute 'right or wrong', I cant really see what our argument is over...

    The foundation of superstition is ignorance, the
    superstructure is faith and the dome is a vain hope. Superstition
    is the child of ignorance and the mother of misery.
    -Robert G. Ingersoll (1898)

     "Do time ninjas have this ability?" "Yeah. Only they stay silent and aren't douchebags."  -Ibl
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #85 - June 25, 2010, 11:55 PM

    the Wiccan Rede says it best: Harm Ye None, but do what ye will
    Do whatever ya want as long as nobody gets hurt, and anyone involved is okay with it.
    with the exception of pedophilia.  Just cuz i dont pray to a god anymore doesnt mean
    i dont have values, morals, and i abide by the laws of the land.

    When one door of happiness closes, another opens; but often we look so long at the closed door that we do not see the one which has been opened for us.
    Helen Keller
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #86 - June 27, 2010, 07:49 AM

    Quote from: Zebedee
    You've already conceded that something does not have to be empirically verifiable in order to be valid, applicable or the like; e.g., logic.


    No, I've said that for 'logic' (or reason) a case can be made that a presupposition of its validity is necessary for communication.  I.e. you cannot even ask whether reason is valid without using reason.  I have not made any kind of general claim and I also never used the word 'empirical' nor the word 'physical'.

    I am willing to consider evidence in the broadest sense so that you can demonstrate somehow that my contention that right and wrong do not exist is untrue.  You need to show that what you want to present as 'morality' is something other that your preference for a particular type of behaviour, behavioural principle or behavioural goal.

    If I claim that God exists, surely you would ask for the evidence.  If I said 'well, you don't need evidence for logic', you would surely point out the redundancy of the assumption that God exists.  That is exactly what I am doing here.  The assumption of morality existing is rationally redundant.

    If you want to say that a similar presupposition to that for reason is needed for morality, you need to explain your case.  So far I have understood you to claim the following:

    1.  That some sense of morality exists in everyone, therefore morality is necessary.  But this is a non-sequitor.  I have already responded that this sense of morality could be an accidental evolutionary by-product that is nothing more than a delusion.  Everyone could behave as if morality existed, without it really existing.  Just as everyone could behave as if God existed without him really existing.  The nihilist can be quite rationally correct without needing to behave as a nihilist.  It is certainly unnecessary to assume that morality exists to discuss whether morality exists.

    In addition, because there are clearly differences between individual 'senses of morality', you cannot appeal to these senses to support your particular morality because they clearly do not agree with you.

    2.  That morality is necessary for survival.  To this I have already asked why I should accept this goal of survival.  In this, I have a choice.  Many people, in fact, choose not to survive - particularly when they think that continuing to survive will only lead to unhappiness.  This suggests that for some at least, the goal of survival is secondary to the goal of happiness.  Some also choose not to survive in order to help someone else (even a complete stranger) survive - and many people tend to think this decision not to survive is in fact a more moral one!  As a result it is clear that survival is not a 'necessary' goal for humans and your claim that morality is necessary for this goal fails.

    Lastly, the fact that you continue to fudge on what your moral goal actually is - individual survival, genetic survival, society's survival, humanity's survival, ordered society, etc. along with a failure to discount any of a range of possible alternative moral goals (such as honour) suggests that my contention that your morality simply reflects your personal preferences is correct.

    I can't see anything in the rest of your post that contradicts any of these so I will just comment on a selection.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    I'm certainly not going to defend other moral systems that people have tried to develop. Their flaws and strengths are another discussion. But with regards to so-called 'Objectivism,' I find it remarkable when reading the writings of its proponents just how incredibly un-objective they are.

    I never asked you to defend other moral systems.  I was using these to illustrate how the term 'objective' is generally used in discussions of morality (i.e. real and evidentially supported) and how some have tried to develop 'objective' moral systems.  This is in contrast to your own claim that your morality is 'objective' and yet somehow not evidentially supported.
    Quote from: Zebedee
    Humans need to survive

    No they don't.  Many choose not to.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    Survival requires an orderly and structured society

    No it doesn't.  People have survived even in 'chaotic' societies. Even in the chaos of the Rawandan genocide, many still survived.
    Quote from: Zebedee
    Therefore, the morality that ensures the most auspicious and orderly society is the best one, in line with moral imperatives.

    Clearly 'auspicious' and 'orderly' are themselves subjective assessments, besides the fact that there are no such 'moral imperatives'.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    One may well say that absolutely everything is ultimately illusory and contingent. However, as long as we humans and our contingent existence are, then so too shall those things that accompany our contingent existence exist, e.g., emotion, philosophy, science, morality, etc.

    No-one is arguing that everything is illusory.  The statement that certain behaviour is right or wrong is a statement about reality.  It is either true or not.  If, you want to say it is true, you need to provide some evidence to support it.  Otherwise, there is no reason to believe that it is true.  So far, you have not provided any such evidence.
    Quote from: Zebedee
    Quote from: sparky
    As an example, if you were a libertarian you might consider there was nothing immoral about letting your parents languish in an old people's home given that this doesn't actually involve infringing on anyone's rights or freedoms (without a tortuous redefinition of 'rights') but for many caring personally for your elderly parents might be considered an 'intrinsic human moral concept'.


    Yes, but this pertains to virtue ethics, which is not what I'm talking about now. To keep it simple, I'd like to stick to deontological ethics for the time being.

    It doesn't particularly pertain to either.  It's simply an example of a potential conflict between the conscience and a particular moral goal.  If the conscience can be 'wrong', in this case, it just needs to be 'trained' to not feel so guilty about not caring for your elderly parents.  If so, then it is indeed irrelevant in the determination of what is right and wrong.
    Quote from: Zebedee
    3. The odd exception hardly refutes the existence of a general rule of morality. The fact is that there are human universals that can be found, even within truly immoral societies.

    Exceptions refute the claim that there is such a thing as a 'universally held moral notion' that can be appealed to.  The consequence of this is that there are no 'truly immoral' societies.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    Why would people contrive such a completely pointless system of merely arbitrarily deciding what certain types of behaviour are?  

    Because doing so helps to manipulate others into doing what they want them to.  Same reason I suppose people might make up a religion.
    Quote from: Zebedee
    The reason, I believe, that you don't want to accept that morality is a means to an end is because of the necessary consequence of accepting that. That is, if morality has a purpose or purposes, then it is not something the purpose or basis of which can be arbitrarily decided upon. Its premises must aim towards a particular goal and so therefore, can't be arbitrary.

    As I have said, the choice of goal itself is indeed arbitrary.  You have shown no evidence or argument that contradicts that.

    What we also tend to see, however, is the arbitrary addition of ad hoc rules, principles, goals and a hierarchy of goals to justify what particular preferred behaviours in the first place.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    But of course, you yourself seemed to concede that it is not practically possible for you to live as a nihilist. The other parts of your post alluded to your own moral intuition, which leads me to believe that you're even psychologically incapable of truly being a nihilist.

    I've already said that it is quite possible for a nihilist to be rationally correct and practically hypocritical.
    I don't see why that any different from someone who claims that he needs evidence to believe in something but then follows the pursuit of a moral goal that has no evidence to support it.
    Or someone who makes up a revelation from God and then decides to follow that.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    The scientific method has a specific end: to discern what is actually the case in the physical world. Therefore, certain notions, if applied, will be consistent with this end and others will not. Those that are not consistent with it will not become part of the system of the scientific method. It's much the same for morality.

    Of course, this has nothing to do with mere subjective consenting to the consistency of these ideas with the practical end. People agree on these things on a subjective level, but subjective agreement cannot and does not define what premises are consistent with the end goal.

    If only one person accepted the premises which were consistent with the scientific method, the opinions of everyone else would not in any way change the fact that only that one persons understanding is the one that is consistent with the end goal of the scientific method. The erroneous understandings would fail to produce the desired end, and the correct one would produce the desired end. Mere subjective opinion and preference is irrelevant.

    And you say that this is how my concept of morality works! Well then, now that I've shown you that personal preference is, in fact, not the deciding factor, are you willing to concede the possibility of an objective morality that functions similarly?

    The 'end' here is not 'objective' it is subjectively chosen to guide the behaviour of those who want (prefer) to work towards that end.  There is no sense in which the end is 'true' or itself a part of reality.  It exists only in the minds of people and is in no sense 'necessary' for anything.  At no point have I said that the choice of a particular end does not imply certain behaviours as being right or wrong with respect to that end.  If the end is subjectively chosen (as yours is) then the resulting morality is also subjective and arbitrary.
    Quote from: Zebedee
    And of course. But that is only because your definitions of 'objective' and 'absolute' refer to an actual physical component of the universe. I'm advocating no such thing.

    Rubbish.  Any kind of component of the universe that you can demonstrate to exist.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    It may not be less consistent! It doesn't disprove the objectivity of the morality that I advocate by any means. It seems, however, to pertain more to virtue ethics, and that's not what I'm discussing.

    Frankly that's a cop out.  I have given you an alternative morality that meets all the characteristics of your own.  The choice of one or the other is entirely subjective and arbitrary.  A fantasy of your own mind.
    Quote from: Zebedee
    Yes. And you failed to produce an example of a genuine logical inconsistency, as far as I could tell. You only seemed to say that such things were possible. I didn't see any example though.

    Take the plane with 300 children.
    'My survival' would imply I would shoot the plane down if it was heading for me, ignore it if it was heading elsewhere.
    'Society's survival would imply shooting the plane down to preserve the society.
    'Ordered society' would imply shooting the plane down only if society would be more 'disordered' as a result (probably a subjective assessment).
    Humanity survival would probably mean doing nothing as the event would pose little threat to human survival.
    Etc, etc.  Different ends mean different moralities.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    Yes. As for a hierarchy: any infraction committed against a person should be repaid in like value.

    Another arbitrary principle.

    Quote from: Zebedee
    3. Yup. But I believe that morality is quite consistent with human nature and rationality. I see living by morality as a characterisitic of being a human, and so therefore, I don't see it as being hypocritical to live according to it in the slightest.

    There is no 'particular' morality that is 'consistent' with human nature - there is an infinite number.  The hypocrisy is in choosing one and behaving as if it is true when you have no reason to think so.

    Cheers,
    sparky
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #87 - June 27, 2010, 09:19 AM

    This is the golden rule:

    If over 18 AND consenting AND no physical harm done AND no one else affected = OK

    Anything to which the above rule applies, i.e incest, polygamy, etc are OK (as long as contraception is used to ensure kids arent born from the relationship)
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #88 - June 27, 2010, 09:21 AM

    Why 18?

    Devious, treacherous, murderous, neanderthal, sub-human of the West. bunny
  • Re: right, wrong
     Reply #89 - June 27, 2010, 09:26 AM

    that's when they're adults in most places.
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